E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body

Signal Amplification Rating

The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use

It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30 seconds

5 minutes

10 minutes

E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands

40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands

All HF bands

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

IARP agreement

ITU reciprocal license

All of these choices are correct

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

The location of the ground control station

The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60

60 or 100

180 or 360

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz

14.020 MHz

28.330 MHz

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR

802.11

AMTOR

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?

A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises

The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band

Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands

Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?

The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting

Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals

A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals

A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

100 watts

125 watts

25 watts

E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?

It would reduce the signal to noise ratio

It would reduce bandwidth

It would increase bandwidth

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other

The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Solar radio frequency emissions

Geomagnetic storms

Meteor showers

E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

1.89 kHz

94.5 kHz

9.45 kHz

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds

110 seconds

440 seconds

E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees

161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees

181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees

E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?

Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies

Because of the Heisenburg Effect

Because conductors are non-linear devices

E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common Mode Oscillating System

Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon

Common Mode Organic Silicon

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1

2

3

E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate

An "OR" gate

A clock

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator

Linear voltage regulator

Emitter follower amplifier

E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

A Butterworth filter

An active LC filter

A passive op-amp filter

E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output

It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits

A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands

Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator

Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference

Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero

The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Through a tapped coil

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection

Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth

All of these choices are correct

E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

60

0.167

0.6

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts

120 volts

170 volts

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees

25 degrees

30 degrees

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB

3 dB

24 dB

E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire

A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel

A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be inductive

The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The termination impedance

The line length

The center conductor resistivity

E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Radiation resistance

Antenna radiation pattern

Radio propagation

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts

632 watts

63.2 watts