Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?
The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E06: Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
The VEC coordinating the session
The FCC
Each administering VE
The VE session manager
E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government
E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
Because the satellite is spinning
Because of ionospheric absorption
Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
Because of the Doppler Effect
E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
PAL
DRM
Scottie
NTSC
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude
E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31
E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?
15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
Use of high speed CW or digital modes
Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
All of these choices are correct
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C13: What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz
E4C04: What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?
The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?
Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct
E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R
E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds
E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A14: What is a JK flip-flop?
A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption
E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier
E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1
E7E01: Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
A reactance modulator on the oscillator
A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
A balanced modulator on the oscillator
E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?
Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency
E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
0.21
94
47
24
E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?
An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube
E8A08: What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
240 volts
120 volts
340 volts
170 volts
E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?
A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
A type of ground-plane antenna
A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
A dipole configured to provide forward gain
E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation
E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type
E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?
It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
It has high gain
It minimizes harmonic radiation
It may be used for multiband operation
E9E04: What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?
To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics
To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the generator
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
Voltage circles and current arcs
Resistance circles and reactance arcs
Voltage lines and current chords
Resistance lines and reactance chords
E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map
Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
