Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW

E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Because the satellite is spinning
Because of ionospheric absorption
Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
Because of the Doppler Effect

E2B08: Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
A separate VHF or UHF audio link
Frequency modulation of the video carrier
All of these choices are correct

E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
To relay calls to and from a DX station

E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C13: What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct

E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels
Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
Signals which appear at one IF but not another
Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

157.8 Hz
315.6 Hz
47.3 kHz
23.67 kHz

E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?

400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts

E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common Mode Oscillating System
Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
Common Mode Organic Silicon

E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector

E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?

A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
It can be used to make an audio delay line
It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
It samples and stores analog signals

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None
One
Two
Four

E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
L networks cannot perform impedance transformation
Pi networks have fewer components
Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By rectification and filtering of RF signals
By breakdown of the Zener voltage
By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?

It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency

E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q

E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?

An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C12: What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Faster transmission rate
The signal can overpower interfering signals
Foreign language characters can be sent
Some types of errors can be detected

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts

E9A10: How is antenna efficiency calculated?

(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees

E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system

E9F15: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions

E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It has a bidirectional pattern
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands