E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

All of the choices are correct

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use

It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

3 miles

10 miles

30 miles

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA

Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

All of these choices are correct

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

IARP agreement

ITU reciprocal license

All of these choices are correct

E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

HEO

Geomagnetic

LEO

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information

The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO

The most common set of contest rules

The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of characters transmitted per second

The number of characters transmitted per minute

The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

RTTY

PSK31

MFSK

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?

Sporadic-E

Transequatorial

Auroral

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately twice the distance

By approximately one-half the distance

By approximately four times the distance

E4A09: Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?

Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output

Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter

All of these choices are correct

E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

0.1 MHz

1.4652 Hz

1.4652 kHz

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Raise the receiver IF frequency

Increase the receiver front end gain

Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal

You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A09: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit at resonance?

The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees

The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?

31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees

51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees

91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space

A charged capacitor

A battery

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage

To protect the substrate from excessive voltages

To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Low power consumption

High speed operation

More efficient arithmetic operations

E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier

A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator

Linear voltage regulator

Emitter follower amplifier

E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?

An adaptive filter

A notch filter

An elliptical filter

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A tunnel diode

An SCR

A varactor diode

E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

To reduce impulse noise reception

For higher efficiency

To remove third-order distortion products

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28

7

0.07

E7H14: What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator

An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator

An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input

E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?

A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps

A running display of alpha-numeric characters

None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second

The amplitude of the pulses

The duration of the pulses

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit

It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line

It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Radiation resistance plus space impedance

Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance

Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB

18 dB

24 dB

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees

75 degrees

25 degrees

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line

Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts

78.7 watts

420 watts