E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location

E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge

300 Hz above the lower band edge

1 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station

Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A02: What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east

From east to west

From south to north

E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation

Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation

Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK

E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable

It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station

Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

AMTOR

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

PSK31

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial

Sporadic-E

Long-path

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy

Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery

CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

All of these choices are correct

E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

146.52 Hz

10 Hz

146.52 kHz

E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

13.845 MHz

14.755 MHz

14.445 MHz

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads

By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads

By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Capacitance

Conductance

Resistance

E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees

191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees

161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?

400 watts

2000 watts

50 watts

E6A08: What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

Corner frequency

Alpha rejection frequency

Beta cutoff frequency

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C03: Which of the following describes tri-state logic?

Logic devices that utilize ternary math

Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts

Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

13 turns

79 turns

141 turns

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon

Silicon nitride

Silicon dioxide

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability

A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability

A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high

E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Exactly 180 degrees

The entire cycle

Less than 180 degrees

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network

A network with only three discrete parts

A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides brute force filtering of the output

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It clips the peaks of the ripple

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By breakdown of the Zener voltage

By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging

Prescaling

D/A conversion

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands

It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator

It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

25 to 1

1 to 1

100 to 1

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband

AMTOR

Time-domain frequency modulation

E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?

46 volts

92 volts

130 volts

E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Radiation resistance plus space impedance

Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance

Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled

The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy

The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees

75 degrees

25 degrees

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q

Greater structural strength

Higher losses

E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?

It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band

It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source

It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Characteristic impedance

Surge impedance

Standing wave ratio

E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio

It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity

It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity