Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A08: What does SAR measure?
Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?
Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
Only General class or higher amateur licenses
An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?
The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
All of these choices are correct
E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
Minimum passing score of 70%
Minimum passing score of 74%
Minimum passing score of 80%
Minimum passing score of 77%
E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
440 - 450 MHz
53 - 54 MHz
222 - 223 MHz
420 - 430 MHz
E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz
E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
FSK441
PACTOR III
Olivia
JT65
E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles
E3C07: How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?
The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
The horizontal beam width increases with height
The horizontal beam width decreases with height
E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?
Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter
E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz
E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
An electrical-sparking signal
A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
94.5 kHz
9.45 kHz
E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
0.02 seconds
0.04 seconds
20 seconds
40 seconds
E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
It has to be a direct current circuit
It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
It contains resistance and inductive reactance
It is equivalent to a pure resistance
E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current
E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
2
4
5
6
E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
Varactor diode
Tunnel diode
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener diode
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?
Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic
E6E02: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes
E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?
To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
To balance the low-voltage filament windings
To improve output voltage regulation
To boost the amount of output current
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance
A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through a capacitive divider
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
Human speech
Video signals
Data
All of these choices are correct
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts
E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
Radiation resistance plus space impedance
Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?
The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long
E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?
A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire
E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation
E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
