Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge
300 Hz below the upper band edge
1 kHz below the upper band edge
3 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

30
60
90
120

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

FSK441
PACTOR III
Olivia
JT65

E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Hellschreiber
PACTOR
RTTY
AMTOR

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

CW
SSB
FM
RTTY

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR
Q
Time
Frequency

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy
Time base accuracy
Decade divider accuracy
Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm

E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

A large increase in background noise
A reduction in apparent signal strength
The desired signal can no longer be heard
The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal

E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Solar radio frequency emissions
Thunderstorms
Geomagnetic storms
Meteor showers

E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R

E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?

6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees

E5D01: What is the result of skin effect?

As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop

E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?

A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

E6D15: What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?

They consume less power
They can display changes instantly
They are visible in all light conditions
They can be easily interchanged with other display devices

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer

E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

Field effect transistor
Nuvistor
Silicon controlled rectifier
Triac

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high

E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain

E8B12: What is digital time division multiplexing?

Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code

E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio
They are the same
The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

4
3
1
7

E9D15: Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground
An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke

E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle