Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form

E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

440 - 450 MHz
53 - 54 MHz
222 - 223 MHz
420 - 430 MHz

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B04: What is blanking in a video signal?

Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
Transmitting a black and white test pattern

E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
Use of high speed CW or digital modes
Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
All of these choices are correct

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?

Variability of signal strength with beam heading
Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter

E4A09: Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?

Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output
Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter
All of these choices are correct

E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz

E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels
Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
Signals which appear at one IF but not another
Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B11: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

It has to be a direct current circuit
It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
It contains resistance and inductive reactance
It is equivalent to a pure resistance

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
Any FET without a channel
Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1
5
6
7

E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?

A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals

E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Selenium
Silicon
Cadmium Sulfide
Copper oxide

E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high

E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Emitter load
Fixed bias
Collector load
Voltage regulation

E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?

A crystal filter
A cavity filter
A DSP filter
An L-C filter

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct

E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G04: Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?

Electrolytic
Disc ceramic
Polystyrene
Paper

E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
All of these choices are correct

E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

60
0.167
0.6
1.67

E8C12: What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Faster transmission rate
The signal can overpower interfering signals
Foreign language characters can be sent
Some types of errors can be detected

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage

E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees

E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases

E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node

E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?

It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions

E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map
Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source