E0A10: What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?

Polyethylene

Polytetrafluroethylene

Polymorphic silicon

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel

At the highest frequency of the channel

On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator

Under automatic control there is no control operator

Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?

A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations

To separate the calling stations from the DX station

To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of characters transmitted per second

The number of characters transmitted per minute

The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The F1 layer

The F2 layer

The D layer

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial

Sporadic-E

Long-path

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy

Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery

CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

165.2 Hz

14.652 kHz

1.4652 MHz

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity

The multiplex distortion stability

The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal

You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

63.2 MHz

10.1 kHz

63.2 kHz

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds

9 seconds

900 seconds

E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?

400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees

700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees

E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.414

0.866

1.73

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

Any FET without a channel

Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage

A negative resistance region

An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2

4

6

E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

13 turns

79 turns

141 turns

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction

Point-to-point construction

Wave-soldering construction

E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Selenium

Cadmium Sulfide

Copper oxide

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate

An "OR" gate

A clock

E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

Nuvistor

Silicon controlled rectifier

Triac

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides brute force filtering of the output

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It clips the peaks of the ripple

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very high

100 ohms

1000 ohms

E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

A hybrid synthesizer

A phase locked loop synthesizer

A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave

A square wave

A sine wave

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

Easily copied by ear if necessary

Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts

16 watts

18 watts

E9A11: Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

Isolate the coax shield from ground

Shorten the radiating element

Reduce the diameter of the radiating element

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled

The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy

The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Azimuth

Radiation resistance

Polarization

E9D11: What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?

To increase the SWR bandwidth

To lower the losses

To lower the Q

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts

78.7 watts

420 watts