Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge
300 Hz above the lower band edge
1 kHz above the lower band edge
3 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5
2
4
3

E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360

E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

D-region absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Ground wave

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A front-end filter or pre-selector
A narrow IF filter
A notch filter
A properly adjusted product detector

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds

E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees

E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?

The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons

E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?

A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

2 dB
-10 dB
44 dBm
-20 dBm

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power
The effective payback period
The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
The relative fraction of light that is converted to current

E7A09: D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic "1"?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias

E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?

A crystal filter
A cavity filter
A DSP filter
An L-C filter

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion

E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

1
0.03
38
76

E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long

E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match

E9F13: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
The same as the generator output impedance

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map
Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source