Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
All of these choices are correct
E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?
The exact upper band edge
300 Hz below the upper band edge
1 kHz below the upper band edge
3 kHz below the upper band edge
E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session
E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW
E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
Unnumbered Information
Disconnect
Acknowledgement
Connect
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz
E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles
E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
It stays the same
It increases
It decreases
It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
SWR
Q
Time
Frequency
E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz
E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm
E4D03: How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
The highest frequency that will pass current
The lowest frequency that will pass current
The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts
E6A01: In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
In high-current rectifier circuits
In high-power audio circuits
At microwave frequencies
At very low frequency RF circuits
E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
The heater voltage
The anode voltage
The operating temperature
The operating frequency
E6E02: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
E6F11: Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
0.1 V
0.5 V
1.5 V
12 V
E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?
Field effect transistor
Nuvistor
Silicon controlled rectifier
Triac
E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter
E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers together
E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
1
0.03
38
76
E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor
E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
Regular sinusoidal oscillations
Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
A signal that contains three or more discrete tones
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum
E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage
E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?
The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present
E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?
Feed point impedance may become negative
The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
Element spacing limits could be exceeded
The gain may change depending on frequency
E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss
E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?
A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire
E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?
15 meters
20 meters
10 meters
71 meters
E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?
It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
