Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below
E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct
E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
All of these choices are correct
E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO
E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz
E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?
Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
To separate the calling stations from the DX station
To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude
E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A09: Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?
Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output
Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter
All of these choices are correct
E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
100 watts
125 watts
25 watts
75 watts
E4C04: What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?
The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one
E5C20: Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8
E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B12: What is one common use for PIN diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF switch
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
12 volts
1.5 volts
5 volts
13.6 volts
E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
E6F11: Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
0.1 V
0.5 V
1.5 V
12 V
E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
Push-push
Push-pull
Class C
Class AB
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct
E7E04: What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance
A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain
E8B10: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?
Frequency shift keying
A diversity combiner
Frequency division multiplexing
Pulse compression
E8C12: What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?
Faster transmission rate
The signal can overpower interfering signals
Foreign language characters can be sent
Some types of errors can be detected
E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?
123 volts
96 volts
55 volts
48 volts
E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
6.17 dB
9.85 dB
12.5 dB
14.15 dB
E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation
E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional
E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized
E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct
E9F13: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
The same as the generator output impedance
E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
It has a bidirectional pattern
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands
