Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A08: What does SAR measure?
Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?
12 meter band
17 meter band
30 meter band
60 meter band
E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz
E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct
E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
The location of the ground control station
The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
30
60
525
1080
E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
To relay calls to and from a DX station
E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
Unnumbered Information
Disconnect
Acknowledgement
Connect
E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line
E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
The transmitter is not properly neutralized
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
There is more power going into the antenna
E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
It reduces receiver sensitivity
It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated
E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds
E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct
E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
Selenium
Silicon
Cadmium Sulfide
Copper oxide
E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?
Monostable multivibrator
J-K flip-flop
T flip-flop
Astable multivibrator
E7B14: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Input coupling
Hum filtering
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
It has a ramp voltage as its output
It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?
Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method
E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?
Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency
E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance
A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain
E8B12: What is digital time division multiplexing?
Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?
0.707:1
2:1
1.414:1
4:1
E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?
1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB
E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable
E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees
E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized
E9E06: 3-element Yagi?
Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank
E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
Reduced safe operating voltage limits
Reduced losses per unit of length
Higher velocity factor
All of these choices are correct
E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?
A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
