Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
E2B04: What is blanking in a video signal?
Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
Transmitting a black and white test pattern
E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?
South
North
East
West
E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
The transmitter is not properly neutralized
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
There is more power going into the antenna
E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?
Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct
E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
94.5 kHz
9.45 kHz
E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
E5C15: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.73
0.5
0.866
0.577
E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?
A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit
E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?
None
One
Two
Four
E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
Push-push
Push-pull
Class C
Class AB
E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?
A Phase Inverter Load network
A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode
E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?
Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated
E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
1
0.03
38
76
E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum
E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage
E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB
E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable
E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB
E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency
E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?
An SWR less than 1:1
A reflection coefficient greater than 1
A dielectric constant greater than 1
An SWR greater than 1:1
E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity
E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions
E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?
A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle
