Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz
E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
A control operator need not be present at the control point
A control operator must be present at the control point
Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct
E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
30
60
90
120
E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?
Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times
E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B07: Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
High D layer absorption
Meteor scatter
Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
Receipt of a signal by more than one path
E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?
Variability of signal strength with beam heading
Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
SWR
Q
Time
Frequency
E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
146.52 Hz
10 Hz
146.52 kHz
1465.20 Hz
E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
Fewer components in the receiver
Reduced drift
Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
Improved receiver noise figure
E4D06: What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?
Amplifier desensitization
Neutralization
Adjacent channel interference
Intermodulation interference
E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct
E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?
Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R
E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
E5C11: What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates?
The magnitude and phase of the point
The sine and cosine values
The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
The tangent and cotangent values
E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
2
3
4
6
E6D16: What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride
E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
Selenium
Silicon
Cadmium Sulfide
Copper oxide
E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7B14: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Input coupling
Hum filtering
E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
E7D05: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
A constant current source
A series regulator
A shunt current source
A shunt regulator
E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?
Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method
E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?
An echo caused by a long time delay
A reduction in high frequency response
Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?
2.5 to 1
25 to 1
1 to 1
100 to 1
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?
4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts
E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna
E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?
75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees
E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type
E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat
E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct
E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
10 meters
6.9 meters
24 meters
50 meters
E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis
E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?
A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle
