E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

All of the choices are correct

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

Only General class or higher amateur licenses

An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel

At the highest frequency of the channel

On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30 seconds

5 minutes

10 minutes

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations

A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

The location of the ground control station

The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E2B19: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies

They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz

They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz

14.020 MHz

28.330 MHz

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR

Hellschreiber

APRS

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters

30 to 10 meters

6 meters to 2 meters

E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction

The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction

The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals

A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals

A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude

A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization

Cross-modulation interference

Frequency discrimination

E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Too little gain

Lack of neutralization

Positive feedback

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver

A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A14: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

44.72 MHz

22.36 MHz

1.78 MHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

It has to be a direct current circuit

It contains resistance and capacitive reactance

It contains resistance and inductive reactance

E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?

400 watts

2000 watts

50 watts

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

Any FET without a channel

Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C06: Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design

The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage

Input signals are stronger

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on

The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light

The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It decreases

It stays the same

It becomes unstable

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B03: Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies

A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients

A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor

To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off

To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator

Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference

Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged

Op-amps are fixed at one frequency

Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements

E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Pierce and Zener

Armstrong and deForest

Negative feedback and balanced feedback

E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?

Linear amplification

PSK31 data transmission

Multiphase power transmission

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

0.1 Hz

0.3 kHz

1.0 kHz

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

RMS voltage

Average voltage

DC voltage

E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

The specific impedance of the antenna

The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees

25 degrees

30 degrees

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line

Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Free-space radiation directivity chart

Elevation angle radiation pattern chart

Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts

632 watts

63.2 watts