Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?
Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct
E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW
E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz
E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm
E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct
E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
31 Hz
316 Hz
550 Hz
2.16 kHz
E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
Equipment with very wide bandwidth
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct
E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct
E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
13.845 MHz
14.755 MHz
14.445 MHz
15.210 MHz
E4D09: What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
To store often-used frequencies
To provide a range of AGC time constants
To increase rejection of unwanted signals
To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
Potential differences between two points in space
Electric current
A charged capacitor
A battery
E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?
An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
Any FET without a channel
Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
Thermal impedance
Resistance
Reactivity
Permeability
E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?
An "AND" gate
An "OR" gate
A flip-flop
A clock
E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier
E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
E7D17: What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?
The inverter design does not require any output filtering
It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power" from the unused portion of the AC cycle
E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?
Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method
E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?
To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal
E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?
The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition
E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?
An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube
E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
Linear amplification
PSK31 data transmission
Multiphase power transmission
Digital data transmission
E8B10: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?
Frequency shift keying
A diversity combiner
Frequency division multiplexing
Pulse compression
E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum
E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?
Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage
E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable
E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
It causes increased SWR
It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
It reduces low-angle radiation
It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?
A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire
E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match
E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?
159 watts
252 watts
632 watts
63.2 watts
