Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge
300 Hz above the lower band edge
1 kHz above the lower band edge
3 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30 seconds
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct

E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Winlink
RTTY
PSK31
MFSK

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Detector noise
Induction motor noise
Receiver front-end noise
Atmospheric noise

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

E5D14: What is reactive power?

Wattless, nonproductive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q

E6A08: What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

Corner frequency
Alpha rejection frequency
Beta cutoff frequency
Alpha cutoff frequency

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption

E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor

E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer

E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

Field effect transistor
Nuvistor
Silicon controlled rectifier
Triac

E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

A Butterworth filter
An active LC filter
A passive op-amp filter
A Chebyshev filter

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode

E7E01: Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
A reactance modulator on the oscillator
A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
A balanced modulator on the oscillator

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A09: What type of waveform is produced by human speech?

Sinusoidal
Logarithmic
Irregular
Trapezoidal

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs

E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

0.1 Hz
0.3 kHz
0.5 kHz
1.0 kHz

E8D07: What is an electromagnetic wave?

Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Feed point impedance may become negative
The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
Element spacing limits could be exceeded
The gain may change depending on frequency

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long

E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be capacitive
The driven element reactance must be inductive
The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power