Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?
70 cm
70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
70 cm and 33 cm
33 cm and 13 cm
E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
In FCC Part 97
In a question pool maintained by the FCC
In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government
E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?
Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
E2D02: What is the definition of baud?
The number of data symbols transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per minute
The number of words transmitted per minute
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz
E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
Input attenuator accuracy
Time base accuracy
Decade divider accuracy
Temperature coefficient of the logic
E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
A front-end filter or pre-selector
A narrow IF filter
A notch filter
A properly adjusted product detector
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
Signals which are constant at all IF levels
Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
Signals which appear at one IF but not another
Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance
E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms
E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
Potential differences between two points in space
Electric current
A charged capacitor
A battery
E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material
E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?
A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B15: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
Neutralization
Select transistors with high beta
Use a resistor in series with the emitter
All of these choices are correct
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct
E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?
It can run on battery power for remote measurements
It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?
An echo caused by a long time delay
A reduction in high frequency response
Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?
0.707:1
2:1
1.414:1
4:1
E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
E9B08: How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?
Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type
E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms
E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
E9F15: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
Voltage circles and current arcs
Resistance circles and reactance arcs
Voltage lines and current chords
Resistance lines and reactance chords
E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts
