E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits

You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property

Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations

Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Minimum passing score of 70%

Minimum passing score of 80%

Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication

E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems

Which sideband to use

E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation

Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation

Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

Pulse modulation

Spread spectrum

E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

Equipment with very wide bandwidth

Equipment with very low dynamic range

Equipment with very low gain

E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?

Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator

Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator

Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line

The transmitter is not properly neutralized

There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line

E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization

Cross-modulation interference

Frequency discrimination

E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Too little gain

Lack of neutralization

Positive feedback

E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead

By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads

By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead

E5A15: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

3.76 MHz

11.18 MHz

22.36 MHz

E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current

14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C23: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?

Point 1

Point 3

Point 5

E5D01: What is the result of skin effect?

As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface

Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance

Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance

E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

The change of collector current with respect to base current

The change of base current with respect to collector current

The change of collector current with respect to gate current

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Electrolytic rectifier

CMOS-field effect

Thermionic emission diode

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

2

3

4

E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?

Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability

Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value

Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance

Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier

A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Monostable multivibrator

J-K flip-flop

T flip-flop

E7B02: What is a Class D amplifier?

A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improved linearity

An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency

A frequency doubling amplifier

E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple

Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output

It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Mixer blanking occurs

Automatic limiting occurs

A beat frequency is generated

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower

Two frequency multipliers

A voltage divider

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Wide-band AF and RF power amplification

Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter

Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The number of degrees in one cycle

The number of zero crossings in one cycle

The amplitude of the wave

E8B12: What is digital time division multiplexing?

Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter

Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier

Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Direct sequence

Time-domain frequency modulation

Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?

0.707:1

1.414:1

4:1

E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.17 dB

12.5 dB

14.15 dB

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

It causes increased SWR

It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well

It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies

It must be neutralized

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system

The omega matching system

The stub matching system

E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the input impedance to the generator

Very high impedance

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts

632 watts

63.2 watts