Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
Only General class or higher amateur licenses
An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
All of these choices are correct

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

440 - 450 MHz
53 - 54 MHz
222 - 223 MHz
420 - 430 MHz

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite

E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

PAL
DRM
Scottie
NTSC

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS

E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

31 Hz
316 Hz
550 Hz
2.16 kHz

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line

E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?

In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Amplitude
Duration
SWR
Q

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C04: What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?

The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E5A08: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
The voltage and current are in phase
The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E5C20: Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8

E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.73
0.5
0.866
0.577

E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

The change of collector current with respect to base current
The change of base current with respect to collector current
The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
The change of collector current with respect to gate current

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material

E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?

2
3
4
6

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7B07: Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Reduced intermodulation products
Increased overall intelligibility
Signal inversion
Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth

E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
To balance the low-voltage filament windings
To improve output voltage regulation
To boost the amount of output current

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop

E7G04: Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?

Electrolytic
Disc ceramic
Polystyrene
Paper

E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation

E8A09: What type of waveform is produced by human speech?

Sinusoidal
Logarithmic
Irregular
Trapezoidal

E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts

E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Radiation resistance plus space impedance
Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio
They are the same
The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

4
3
1
7

E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

To swamp out harmonics
To maximize losses
To minimize losses
To minimize the Q

E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern

E9F10: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance

E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power