Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
All HF bands

E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Minimum passing score of 70%
Minimum passing score of 74%
Minimum passing score of 80%
Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power

E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
Which sideband to use

E2B17: What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?

600 Hz
3 kHz
2 MHz
6 MHz

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder
To delay download of telemetry between satellites
To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
To relay messages between satellites

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles

E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

D-region absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Ground wave

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

146.52 Hz
10 Hz
146.52 kHz
1465.20 Hz

E4C04: What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?

The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise

E4D05: What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz

E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Solar radio frequency emissions
Thunderstorms
Geomagnetic storms
Meteor showers

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?

400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts

E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common Mode Oscillating System
Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
Common Mode Organic Silicon

E6B11: What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Forward DC bias current
A sub-harmonic pump signal
Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption

E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied
A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor

E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?

Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic

E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
The entire cycle
Less than 180 degrees

E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?

It is a low-pass filter
It is a band-pass filter
It is a high-pass filter
It is a notch filter

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
To balance the low-voltage filament windings
To improve output voltage regulation
To boost the amount of output current

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By rectification and filtering of RF signals
By breakdown of the Zener voltage
By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation

E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

By using a grid dip meter
By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
By using an absorption wavemeter
By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

E8B10: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?

Frequency shift keying
A diversity combiner
Frequency division multiplexing
Pulse compression

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage

E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna

E9B08: How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna

E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

It causes increased SWR
It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
It reduces low-angle radiation
It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis

E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position