Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz

E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30 seconds
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?

In FCC Part 97
In a question pool maintained by the FCC
In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?

To provide for experimental amateur communications
To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
To provide additional spectrum for personal use
To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south

E2B19: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct

E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South
North
East
West

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct

E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz

E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
It reduces receiver sensitivity
It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct

E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?

38.1 kHz
76.2 kHz
1.332 kHz
2.665 kHz

E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C13: What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance?

Maidenhead grid
Faraday grid
Elliptical coordinates
Rectangular coordinates

E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

70.7 Watts
100 Watts
141.4 Watts
200 Watts

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2
4
5
6

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material

E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Low power consumption
Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
High speed operation
More efficient arithmetic operations

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor

E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?

Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic

E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
L networks cannot perform impedance transformation
Pi networks have fewer components
Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode

E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
To reduce impulse noise reception
For higher efficiency
To remove third-order distortion products

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high

E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Through a tapped coil
Through a capacitive divider
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB

E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Elevation
Azimuth
Radiation resistance
Polarization

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match
The delta match
The omega match
The stub match

E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts