Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South
North
East
West

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct

E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

The inductance to capacitance ratio
The frequency shift
The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

E4D06: What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Amplifier desensitization
Neutralization
Adjacent channel interference
Intermodulation interference

E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
An electrical-sparking signal
A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
Harmonics of the AC power line frequency

E5A12: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

436.6 kHz
218.3 kHz
31.4 kHz
15.7 kHz

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.02 seconds
0.04 seconds
20 seconds
40 seconds

E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?

6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees

E5D01: What is the result of skin effect?

As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance

E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Holes
Free electrons
Free protons
Free neutrons

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Varactor diode
Tunnel diode
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener diode

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts
1.5 volts
5 volts
13.6 volts

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic

E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
A passive delay line

E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7B20: What is a parametric amplifier?

A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector
A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification
A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain
An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements
It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter

E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q

E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?

An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave

E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

2.14
0.214
0.47
47

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D10: What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power?

An SWR meter reading in the forward direction
A modulation meter
An average reading wattmeter
A peak-reading wattmeter

E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms

E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?

It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls