Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?
.5
1.0
2.0
3.0
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct
E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct
E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
FM and CW
SSB and SSTV
PSK and Packet
All of these choices are correct
E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
30
60
90
120
E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
To relay calls to and from a DX station
E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
To upload operational software for the transponder
To delay download of telemetry between satellites
To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
To relay messages between satellites
E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
6 meters to 2 meters
E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?
D-region absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Ground wave
E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
Amplitude
Duration
SWR
Q
E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum
E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
Too little gain
Lack of neutralization
Nonlinear circuits or devices
Positive feedback
E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct
E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
157.8 Hz
315.6 Hz
47.3 kHz
23.67 kHz
E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5C03: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?
704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW
E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?
A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?
The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
E7A04: How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
1
2
4
8
E7B10: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
Load resistors
Fixed bias
Self bias
Feedback
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D07: What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It bypasses hum around D1
It is a brute force filter for the output
To self-resonate at the hum frequency
To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
0.21
94
47
24
E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?
It generates FM sidebands
It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization
E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?
4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts
E9A11: Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?
Install a good radial system
Isolate the coax shield from ground
Shorten the radiating element
Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?
Feed point impedance may become negative
The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
Element spacing limits could be exceeded
The gain may change depending on frequency
E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
4
3
1
7
E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized
E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio
E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
