E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location

E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Maintain the application form with the VEC's records

Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade

Destroy the application form

E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

IARP agreement

ITU reciprocal license

All of these choices are correct

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Luminance

Hue

Spectral Intensity

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz

14.020 MHz

28.330 MHz

E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

FSK441

PACTOR III

Olivia

E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

RTTY

PSK31

MFSK

E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?

A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises

The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial

Sporadic-E

Long-path

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South

East

West

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR

Q

Time

E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

100 watts

125 watts

25 watts

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

157.8 Hz

315.6 Hz

23.67 kHz

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds

9 seconds

900 seconds

E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees

E5D14: What is reactive power?

Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

Power lost because of capacitor leakage

Power consumed in circuit Q

E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

The change of collector current with respect to base current

The change of base current with respect to collector current

The change of collector current with respect to gate current

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Electrolytic rectifier

CMOS-field effect

Thermionic emission diode

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability

Lower distortion

Immune to damage from static discharge

E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power

The effective payback period

The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?

Push-push

Class C

Class AB

E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

A Butterworth filter

An active LC filter

A passive op-amp filter

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A tunnel diode

An SCR

A varactor diode

E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits

A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands

Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The speed of the logic devices used

Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply

Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp

The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply

The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H12: Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Phase splitter

Hex inverter

Chroma demodulator

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The number of degrees in one cycle

The number of zero crossings in one cycle

The amplitude of the wave

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?

340V AC

85V AC

170V AC

E9A01: Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?

A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity

A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas

A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees

75 degrees

25 degrees

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be inductive

The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak

Broad band response

High-radiation angle