E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Mica

Zinc oxide

Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A12: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

Yes, the DX station initiated the contact

Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment

No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

Two-way single channel transmissions of data

One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

PAL

DRM

Scottie

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO

The most common set of contest rules

The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Polar coordinates

Time and frequency

Radio direction finding LOPs

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

Pulse modulation

Spread spectrum

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is full

When the Moon is at apogee

When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band

Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands

Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Duration

SWR

Q

E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions

It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source

It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other

The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Broadband white noise

Heterodyne interference

All of these choices are correct

E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

1.89 kHz

94.5 kHz

9.45 kHz

E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage and current are in phase

E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Point 2

Point 5

Point 6

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts

1000 watts

1600 watts

E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1

The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

The switching speed of the transistor

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C03: Which of the following describes tri-state logic?

Logic devices that utilize ternary math

Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts

Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz

From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

-10 dB

44 dBm

-20 dBm

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power

The effective payback period

The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B17: Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers?

Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal

Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion

Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network

A network with only three discrete parts

A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It decouples the output

E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Mixer blanking occurs

Automatic limiting occurs

A beat frequency is generated

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

1

0.03

76

E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Through a capacitive divider

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Direct sequence

Time-domain frequency modulation

Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit

It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line

It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts

Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns

Antenna gain

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change

Gain is multiplied by 0.707

Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

20 meters

2.3 meters

0.2 meters

E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak

Broad band response

High-radiation angle