Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
All HF bands
E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
A sentence of up to one year in prison
All of these choices are correct
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south
E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
A special IF converter
A special front end limiter
A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
No other hardware is needed
E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
FSK441
PACTOR III
Olivia
JT65
E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31
E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz
E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?
Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum
E4D09: What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
To store often-used frequencies
To provide a range of AGC time constants
To increase rejection of unwanted signals
To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A08: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
The voltage and current are in phase
The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
Coulomb
Joule
Watt
Volt
E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?
N-type
P-type
Bipolar
Insulated gate
E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current
E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
Selenium
Silicon
Cadmium Sulfide
Copper oxide
E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?
None
One
Two
Four
E7B18: Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
High power gain
High filament voltage
Low input impedance
Low bandwidth
E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
It provides D1 with current
E7E12: What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?
An FM generator circuit
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
An automatic band-switching circuit
A circuit for detecting FM signals
E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop
E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
0.21
94
47
24
E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency
E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
Linear amplification
PSK31 data transmission
Multiphase power transmission
Digital data transmission
E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?
The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
0.1 Hz
0.3 kHz
0.5 kHz
1.0 kHz
E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts
E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
Transmission-line length
Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
Constant feed point impedance
Sunspot activity and time of day
E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
The front-to-back ratio increases
The front-to-back ratio decreases
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced
E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?
Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;
Four-sides, each of a different physical length
E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?
In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite
E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match
E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
20 meters
2.3 meters
3.5 meters
0.2 meters
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?
It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
