Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below
E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
A control operator need not be present at the control point
A control operator must be present at the control point
Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E14: For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO
E2B19: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
They are not permitted above 54 MHz
E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?
Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?
It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
31 Hz
316 Hz
550 Hz
2.16 kHz
E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz
E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night
E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
By approximately 15% of the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance
E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
All of these choices are correct
E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
It reduces receiver sensitivity
It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
E4D05: What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
157.8 Hz
315.6 Hz
47.3 kHz
23.67 kHz
E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one
E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
In the same direction as the current
In a direction opposite to the current
In all directions; omnidirectional
In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop
E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?
A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current
E6F07: What is a solid state relay?
A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
A passive delay line
E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
Emitter load
Fixed bias
Collector load
Voltage regulation
E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode
E7E01: Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
A reactance modulator on the oscillator
A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
A balanced modulator on the oscillator
E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
For smoothing power-supply output
As an audio filter in a receiver
E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
E8A09: What type of waveform is produced by human speech?
Sinusoidal
Logarithmic
Irregular
Trapezoidal
E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
E8D13: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
240 volts
170 volts
120 volts
340 volts
E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
The standing-wave ratio
Distance from the transmitter
Soil conductivity
Take-off angle
E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB
E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
Omnidirectional
A cardioid
A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?
It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
It has high gain
It minimizes harmonic radiation
It may be used for multiband operation
E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
Characteristic impedance
Reflection coefficient
Velocity factor
Dielectric constant
E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?
159 watts
252 watts
632 watts
63.2 watts
