Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge
300 Hz below the upper band edge
1 kHz below the upper band edge
3 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator
Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?

Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS

E2E11: What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
6 meters to 2 meters

E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?

The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately

E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A15: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

3.76 MHz
1.78 MHz
11.18 MHz
22.36 MHz

E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.73
0.5
0.866
0.577

E6A14: How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

They are both low impedance
An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
They are both high impedance

E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2
4
5
6

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer

E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Tune the stage for maximum SWR
Tune both the input and output for maximum power
Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1

E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
To reduce impulse noise reception
For higher efficiency
To remove third-order distortion products

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?

Linear amplification
PSK31 data transmission
Multiphase power transmission
Digital data transmission

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code

E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?

46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid
Omnidirectional
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array

E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system

E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

10 meters
6.9 meters
24 meters
50 meters

E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles

E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map
Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source