E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use

It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems

Which sideband to use

E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?

A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR

Hellschreiber

APRS

E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

RTTY

PACTOR

MT63

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The F1 layer

The F2 layer

The D layer

E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?

Sporadic-E

Transequatorial

Auroral

E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?

The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting

Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses

Match the antenna to the load

All of these choices are correct

E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

165.2 Hz

14.652 kHz

1.4652 MHz

E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?

It would reduce the signal to noise ratio

It would reduce bandwidth

It would increase bandwidth

E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Raise the receiver IF frequency

Increase the receiver front end gain

Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal

Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency

Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?

38.1 kHz

1.332 kHz

2.665 kHz

E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one

One exponential period

A time factor of one

E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Point 2

Point 5

Point 6

E5D14: What is reactive power?

Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

Power lost because of capacitor leakage

Power consumed in circuit Q

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity

N-type impurity

Donor impurity

E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage

A negative resistance region

An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability

Lower distortion

Immune to damage from static discharge

E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?

The heater voltage

The operating temperature

The operating frequency

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction

Point-to-point construction

Wave-soldering construction

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate

An "OR" gate

A clock

E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Creation of parasitic oscillations

Low efficiency

All of these choices are correct

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Pi-L

Cascode

Omega

E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output

It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency

The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies

1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging

Prescaling

D/A conversion

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged

Op-amps are fixed at one frequency

Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback

Pierce, Fenner and Beane

Taft, Hartley and Pierce

E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

Regular sinusoidal oscillations

A series of tones that vary between two frequencies

A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz

Approximately 26 Hz

Approximately 104 Hz

E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?

123 volts

96 volts

55 volts

E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Transmission-line length

Constant feed point impedance

Sunspot activity and time of day

E9B10: What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator

A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space

A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?

Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance

Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;

Four-sides, each of a different physical length

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis

Impedance axis

Polar axis

E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

A large circularly-polarized antenna

A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core

A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire