E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use

It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz

E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30 seconds

5 minutes

10 minutes

E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space

Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F01: On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz

Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

10 KHz

15 KHz

20 KHz

E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable

It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station

Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Polar coordinates

Time and frequency

Radio direction finding LOPs

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

1.8 - 1.9 MHz

10 - 14 MHz

220 - 450 MHz

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters

30 to 10 meters

6 meters to 2 meters

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer

A Q meter

An ohmmeter

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude

A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A narrow IF filter

A notch filter

A properly adjusted product detector

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads

By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads

By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A08: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees

The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current

14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?

173 - j100 ohms

200 + j100 ohms

200 - j100 ohms

E5D09: What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

It is dissipated as heat in the circuit

It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit

It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields

E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Gate 1, gate 2, drain

Emitter, base, collector

Emitter, base 1, base 2

E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Reverse bias

Zero bias

Inductive bias

E6C03: Which of the following describes tri-state logic?

Logic devices that utilize ternary math

Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts

Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry

It can be used to make an audio delay line

It samples and stores analog signals

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon

Silicon nitride

Silicon dioxide

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

An ordinary metal

A heavy metal

A liquid semiconductor

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator

Linear voltage regulator

Emitter follower amplifier

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

To provide line voltage stabilization

Peak clipping

Hum filtering

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By breakdown of the Zener voltage

By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

1

0.03

76

E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages

It must be neutralized

It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?

Linear amplification

PSK31 data transmission

Multiphase power transmission

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000

2000

1/3

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Independent sideband

Regenerative detection

Exponential addition

E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts

120 volts

170 volts

E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

Quarter-wave vertical

Yagi

Half-wave dipole

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth

The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal

The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system

The omega matching system

The stub matching system

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak

Broad band response

High-radiation angle