E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height

You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins

You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link

Automatically manipulating local station controls

Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

FM and CW

SSB and SSTV

PSK and Packet

E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

30

60

1080

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of characters transmitted per second

The number of characters transmitted per minute

The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

Equipment with very wide bandwidth

Equipment with very low dynamic range

Equipment with very low gain

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

SSB

FM

RTTY

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

The inductance to capacitance ratio

The frequency shift

The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other

The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

An electrical-sparking signal

A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency

Harmonics of the AC power line frequency

E5A14: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

44.72 MHz

22.36 MHz

1.78 MHz

E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one

One exponential period

A time factor of one

E5C09: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Reactive component

The sum of the reactive and resistive components

The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space

A charged capacitor

A battery

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2

5

6

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Tunnel diode

Silicon-controlled rectifier

Zener diode

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry

It can be used to make an audio delay line

It samples and stores analog signals

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance

Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F01: What is photoconductivity?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy

The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?

Reverse Logic

Assertive Logic

Negative logic

E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Where the load line intersects the voltage axis

At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Pi-L

Cascode

Omega

E7D04: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

A series current source

A shunt regulator

A shunt current source

E7E04: What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer

By driving a product detector with a DSB signal

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope

To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop

To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp

The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply

The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Wide-band AF and RF power amplification

Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter

Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling

E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection

Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth

All of these choices are correct

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Direct sequence

Time-domain frequency modulation

Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D16: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

170V AC

240V AC

300V AC

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts

Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns

Antenna gain

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change

Gain is multiplied by 0.707

Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be inductive

The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The termination impedance

The line length

The center conductor resistivity

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts

78.7 watts

420 watts