E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

Only General class or higher amateur licenses

An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?

.5

2.0

3.0

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator

Under automatic control there is no control operator

Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

When the total money involved does not exceed $25

When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency

When transmitting international third-party communications

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B19: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies

They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz

They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

RTTY

PSK31

MFSK

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning

Noon

Late at night

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna

Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead

By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads

By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead

E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?

The highest frequency that will pass current

The lowest frequency that will pass current

The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

E5C23: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?

Point 1

Point 3

Point 5

E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.414

0.866

1.73

E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common Mode Oscillating System

Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon

Common Mode Organic Silicon

E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage

A negative resistance region

An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?

Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability

Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value

Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon

Silicon nitride

Silicon dioxide

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

An ordinary metal

A heavy metal

A liquid semiconductor

E7A09: D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic "1"?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator

Linear voltage regulator

Emitter follower amplifier

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Switching voltage regulator

Grounded emitter amplifier

Emitter follower

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator

Phase detector

Phase comparator

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging

Prescaling

D/A conversion

E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

0.21

94

24

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback

Pierce, Fenner and Beane

Taft, Hartley and Pierce

E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Human speech

Video signals

Data

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband

AMTOR

Time-domain frequency modulation

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

RMS voltage

Average power

Resting voltage

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

72 ohms

50 ohms

450 ohms

E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter

It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands

It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern

E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

10 meters

24 meters

50 meters

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals