Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A08: What does SAR measure?
Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
1 mile
3 miles
10 miles
30 miles
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
Minimum passing score of 70%
Minimum passing score of 74%
Minimum passing score of 80%
Minimum passing score of 77%
E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz
E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
30
60
90
120
E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?
15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
Use of high speed CW or digital modes
Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
All of these choices are correct
E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?
Variability of signal strength with beam heading
Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
E4A09: Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?
Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output
Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter
All of these choices are correct
E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
The transmitter is not properly neutralized
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
There is more power going into the antenna
E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum
E4D06: What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?
Amplifier desensitization
Neutralization
Adjacent channel interference
Intermodulation interference
E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?
Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct
E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R
E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
70.7 Watts
100 Watts
141.4 Watts
200 Watts
E6A01: In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
In high-current rectifier circuits
In high-power audio circuits
At microwave frequencies
At very low frequency RF circuits
E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?
A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes
E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
E7B18: Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
High power gain
High filament voltage
Low input impedance
Low bandwidth
E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1
E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?
Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator
E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
Pierce and Zener
Colpitts and Hartley
Armstrong and deForest
Negative feedback and balanced feedback
E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
Regular sinusoidal oscillations
Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
A signal that contains three or more discrete tones
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition
E8D10: What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power?
An SWR meter reading in the forward direction
A modulation meter
An average reading wattmeter
A peak-reading wattmeter
E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
E9B08: How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?
Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
Omnidirectional
A cardioid
A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized
E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
The driven element reactance must be capacitive
The driven element reactance must be inductive
The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?
2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10
E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?
It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
