Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
A control operator need not be present at the control point
A control operator must be present at the control point
Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form
E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
Hellschreiber
PACTOR
RTTY
AMTOR
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct
E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?
The inductance to capacitance ratio
The frequency shift
The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
The resonant frequency of the circuit
E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?
1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz
E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
A large increase in background noise
A reduction in apparent signal strength
The desired signal can no longer be heard
The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct
E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
157.8 Hz
315.6 Hz
47.3 kHz
23.67 kHz
E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.414
0.866
0.5
1.73
E6A15: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?
N-type
P-type
Superconductor-type
Bipolar-type
E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
1
5
6
7
E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
12 volts
1.5 volts
5 volts
13.6 volts
E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?
A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes
E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?
None
One
Two
Four
E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
Push-push
Push-pull
Class C
Class AB
E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
L networks cannot perform impedance transformation
Pi networks have fewer components
Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output
E7D04: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?
A series current source
A series regulator
A shunt regulator
A shunt current source
E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
E7H12: Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
Phase splitter
Hex inverter
Chroma demodulator
Phase accumulator
E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?
A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave
E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?
Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?
1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB
E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?
The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
It causes increased SWR
It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
It reduces low-angle radiation
It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
E9D11: What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?
To increase the SWR bandwidth
To lower the losses
To lower the Q
To cancel capacitive reactance
E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
The driven element reactance must be capacitive
The driven element reactance must be inductive
The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
E9F10: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
