Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

The location is near an area of political conflict
The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?

70 cm
70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
70 cm and 33 cm
33 cm and 13 cm

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

440 - 450 MHz
53 - 54 MHz
222 - 223 MHz
420 - 430 MHz

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz

E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR

E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

48 baud
110 baud
300 baud
1200 baud

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip
D-region skip
Downward bending due to aurora refraction
Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A front-end filter or pre-selector
A narrow IF filter
A notch filter
A properly adjusted product detector

E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase

E5C03: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees

E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?

400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1
5
6
7

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?

Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability
Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

2 dB
-10 dB
44 dBm
-20 dBm

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes unstable

E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?

A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
A dynamic memory storage element
A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions

E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

Field effect transistor
Nuvistor
Silicon controlled rectifier
Triac

E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video

E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio
They are the same
The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB

E9D03: How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

It increases geometrically
It increases arithmetically
It is essentially unaffected
It decreases

E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance

E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map
Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source