Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
All of these choices are correct

E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?

The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct

E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
All of these choices are correct

E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

FM and CW
SSB and SSTV
PSK and Packet
All of these choices are correct

E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

30
60
525
1080

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of data symbols transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per minute
The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

Forward Error Correction
First Error Correction
Fatal Error Correction
Final Error Correction

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters

E3C13: What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C13: How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
All of these choices are correct

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct

E5A14: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

44.72 MHz
22.36 MHz
3.56 MHz
1.78 MHz

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?

400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees

E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy

E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?

1
2
4
5

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1
5
6
7

E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride

E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes

E7A14: What is a JK flip-flop?

A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias

E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video

E7D07: What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It bypasses hum around D1
It is a brute force filter for the output
To self-resonate at the hum frequency
To provide fixed DC bias for Q1

E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop

E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

An echo caused by a long time delay
A reduction in high frequency response
Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands
It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
All of these choices are correct

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs

E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

It includes built-in error-correction features
It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?

46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts

E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Transmission-line length
Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
Constant feed point impedance
Sunspot activity and time of day

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional

E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

E9E06: 3-element Yagi?

Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10

E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Voltage circles and current arcs
Resistance circles and reactance arcs
Voltage lines and current chords
Resistance lines and reactance chords

E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls