E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

All of the choices are correct

E1A12: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

Yes, the DX station initiated the contact

Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment

No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height

You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins

You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location

A station controlled by someone other than the licensee

A station operating under automatic control

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class

Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5

2

4

E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?

To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels

To provide additional spectrum for personal use

To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B14: What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

Tone amplitude

Sync amplitude

Sync frequency

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations

To separate the calling stations from the DX station

To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency

E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Polar coordinates

Time and frequency

Radio direction finding LOPs

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

Pulse modulation

Spread spectrum

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves

In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady

At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?

In the F1-region

In the F2-region

In the D-region

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer

A Q meter

An ohmmeter

E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

The inductance to capacitance ratio

The frequency shift

The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels

Signals which appear at one IF but not another

Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz

23.5 kHz

7.12 kHz

E5B11: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C11: What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates?

The magnitude and phase of the point

The sine and cosine values

The tangent and cotangent values

E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?

704 W

252 W

1.42 mW

E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

P-type

Bipolar

Insulated gate

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1

6

7

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts

1.5 volts

13.6 volts

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz

From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?

A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit

A dynamic memory storage element

A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias

Emitter bypass

Output load resistor

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter

A Pi-network filter

An all-pass filter

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It provides fixed bias for D1

It decouples hum from D1

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator

Phase detector

Phase comparator

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope

To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop

To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28

7

0.07

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback

Pierce, Fenner and Beane

Taft, Hartley and Pierce

E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

By using a grid dip meter

By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter

By using an absorption wavemeter

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000

2000

1/3

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII

AX.25

Baudot

E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?

0.707:1

1.414:1

4:1

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB

18 dB

24 dB

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

Omnidirectional

E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?

So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals

So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation

To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70

0.30

0.10

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations

It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position