E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge

Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field

Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use

It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator

Under automatic control there is no control operator

Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing

Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license

All these choices are correct

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline

A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline

A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information

The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations

To separate the calling stations from the DX station

To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

RTTY

PSK31

MFSK

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Storing and forwarding digital messages

Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon

High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial

Sporadic-E

Long-path

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR

Q

Time

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy

Decade divider accuracy

Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency

The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver

The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz

23.5 kHz

7.12 kHz

E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one

One exponential period

A time factor of one

E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?

400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees

700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery

A transformer

An inductor

E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

The change of collector current with respect to base current

The change of base current with respect to collector current

The change of collector current with respect to gate current

E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?

As a constant current source

As a constant voltage source

As a high voltage rectifier

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts

1.5 volts

13.6 volts

E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency

A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver

A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon

Silicon nitride

Silicon dioxide

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

An ordinary metal

A heavy metal

A liquid semiconductor

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate

An "OR" gate

A clock

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator

Linear voltage regulator

Emitter follower amplifier

E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter

Single-Sideband voice

Video

E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides a constant load to the voltage source

It couples hum to D1

It bypasses hum around D1

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals

By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The speed of the logic devices used

Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply

Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal

Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A square wave

A sine wave

A cosine wave

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second

The amplitude of the pulses

The duration of the pulses

E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

0.1 Hz

0.3 kHz

1.0 kHz

E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel

The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index

The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B08: How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?

Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna

Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines

Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna

E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

The low-angle radiation decreases

The high-angle radiation increases

Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease

E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

As low as possible on the vertical radiator

As close to the transmitter as possible

At a voltage node

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match

The delta match

The omega match

E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

An inductive reactance

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It is non-rotatable

It receives equally well in all directions

It is practical for use only on VHF bands