E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

3 miles

10 miles

30 miles

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space

Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E06: Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

The VEC coordinating the session

The FCC

The VE session manager

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E2A02: What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east

From east to west

From south to north

E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Luminance

Hue

Spectral Intensity

E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

6 meters

2 meters

33 cm

E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?

144.20 MHz

145.02 MHz

146.52 MHz

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The F1 layer

The F2 layer

The D layer

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South

East

West

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Duration

SWR

Q

E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna

Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders

Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels

Signals which appear at one IF but not another

Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Maximum

R/L

L/R

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?

400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees

700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees

E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

70.7 Watts

141.4 Watts

200 Watts

E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

P-type

Bipolar

Insulated gate

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1

6

7

E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS

It is totally immune to electrostatic damage

All of these choices are correct

E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry

It can be used to make an audio delay line

It samples and stores analog signals

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction

Point-to-point construction

Wave-soldering construction

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power

The effective payback period

The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"

It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Fixed bias

Collector load

Voltage regulation

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Pi-L

Cascode

Omega

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It decouples the output

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By breakdown of the Zener voltage

By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements

It does not require an expensive high-precision time base

It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter

E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

An echo caused by a long time delay

A reduction in high frequency response

Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform

The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform

The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal

The degree of carrier suppression

The amplifier gain

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

It includes built-in error-correction features

It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code

It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

RMS voltage

Average voltage

DC voltage

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio

Distance from the transmitter

Take-off angle

E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts

Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns

Antenna gain

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

Omnidirectional

E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

E9E04: What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna

To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics

To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Characteristic impedance

Surge impedance

Standing wave ratio

E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Voltage circles and current arcs

Voltage lines and current chords

Resistance lines and reactance chords

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak

Broad band response

High-radiation angle