Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
All HF bands

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
To separate the calling stations from the DX station
To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
All of these choices are correct

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

Forward Error Correction
First Error Correction
Fatal Error Correction
Final Error Correction

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line

E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
All of these choices are correct

E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?

It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth

E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback

E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads

E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance

E5B03: The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?

86.5%
63.2%
36.8%
13.5%

E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?

173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms

E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy

E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

N-type
P-type
Bipolar
Insulated gate

E6B11: What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

Forward DC bias current
A sub-harmonic pump signal
Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network
A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
It provides D1 with current

E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms

E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?

An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

By using a grid dip meter
By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
By using an absorption wavemeter
By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000
3
2000
1/3

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D16: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

120V AC
170V AC
240V AC
300V AC

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio
Distance from the transmitter
Soil conductivity
Take-off angle

E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

4
3
1
7

E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct

E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

10 meters
6.9 meters
24 meters
50 meters

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis

E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It has a bidirectional pattern
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands