Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas

E1A12: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
No, sidebands from the CW signal will be out of the band.
No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz

E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?

.5
1.0
2.0
3.0

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link

E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Minimum passing score of 70%
Minimum passing score of 74%
Minimum passing score of 80%
Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

30
60
90
120

E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of data symbols transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per minute
The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Hellschreiber
PACTOR
RTTY
AMTOR

E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

Equipment with very wide bandwidth
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South
North
East
West

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D03: How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead

E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz

E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8

E5D14: What is reactive power?

Wattless, nonproductive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q

E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Holes
Free electrons
Free protons
Free neutrons

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage
Excessive junction temperature
Insufficient forward voltage
Charge carrier depletion

E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?

A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F11: Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

0.1 V
0.5 V
1.5 V
12 V

E7A14: What is a JK flip-flop?

A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption

E7B14: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?

Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Input coupling
Hum filtering

E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video

E7D02: What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
The control device's duty cycle is controlled to produce a constant average output voltage
It gives a ramp voltage at its output

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

E8A09: What type of waveform is produced by human speech?

Sinusoidal
Logarithmic
Irregular
Trapezoidal

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts

E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?

The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present

E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees

E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts