Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%
E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz
E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?
A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form
E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?
To provide for experimental amateur communications
To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
To provide additional spectrum for personal use
To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?
Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?
15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
Use of high speed CW or digital modes
Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
All of these choices are correct
E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night
E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
It stays the same
It increases
It decreases
It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer
E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz
E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance
E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current
E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
2
4
5
6
E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop
E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D16: What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.
E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
Tune the stage for maximum SWR
Tune both the input and output for maximum power
Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
Use a phase inverter in the output filter
E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?
To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
To allow for remote control of the power supply
To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain
E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?
It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks
E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
SWR vs. frequency charts
Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
Antenna gain
All of these choices are correct
E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long
E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
To swamp out harmonics
To maximize losses
To minimize losses
To minimize the Q
E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?
Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
