E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

Only General class or higher amateur licenses

An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height

You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins

You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Business-related messages for non-profit organizations

Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service

All of these choices are correct

E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east

From east to west

From north to south

E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

60

90

120

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is full

When the Moon is at apogee

When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles

2500 miles

7500 miles

E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?

The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting

Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer

A Q meter

An ohmmeter

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude

A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity

The multiplex distortion stability

The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders

Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver

The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum

The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band

E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Maximum

R/L

L/R

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees

E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

70.7 Watts

141.4 Watts

200 Watts

E6A15: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?

N-type

Superconductor-type

Bipolar-type

E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?

As a constant current source

As a constant voltage source

As a high voltage rectifier

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

13 turns

79 turns

141 turns

E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

MMICs require no operating bias

Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Protons

Photons

Holes

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B07: Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Reduced intermodulation products

Increased overall intelligibility

Signal inversion

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network

A network with only three discrete parts

A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A tunnel diode

An SCR

A varactor diode

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency

The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies

1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse

It adds two decimal numbers together

E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

An echo caused by a long time delay

A reduction in high frequency response

Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

E7H11: What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Broadband noise

Digital conversion noise

Nyquist limit noise

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal

The degree of carrier suppression

The amplifier gain

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000

2000

1/3

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding

Reed-Solomon character encoding

Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

RMS voltage

Average power

Resting voltage

E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.17 dB

12.5 dB

14.15 dB

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB

18 dB

24 dB

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB

3 dB

24 dB

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match

The delta match

The omega match

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters

20 meters

71 meters

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts