E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits

You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property

Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?

.5

2.0

3.0

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Maintain the application form with the VEC's records

Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade

Destroy the application form

E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Because of ionospheric absorption

Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude

Because of the Doppler Effect

E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

30

60

1080

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz

14.020 MHz

28.330 MHz

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of characters transmitted per second

The number of characters transmitted per minute

The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input

Low reluctance input

Low impedance input

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver

A Class C final amplifier

A Class D final amplifier

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels

Signals which appear at one IF but not another

Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz

23.5 kHz

7.12 kHz

E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

One discharge period

An exponential discharge rate of one

A discharge factor of one

E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees

161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees

181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees

E5D09: What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

It is dissipated as heat in the circuit

It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit

It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields

E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

2

3

6

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Electrolytic rectifier

CMOS-field effect

Thermionic emission diode

E6C03: Which of the following describes tri-state logic?

Logic devices that utilize ternary math

Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts

Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

E6D16: What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?

Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities

Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability

Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It decreases

It stays the same

It becomes unstable

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate

An "OR" gate

A clock

E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Fixed bias

Collector load

Voltage regulation

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter

A Pi-network filter

An all-pass filter

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply

To balance the low-voltage filament windings

To boost the amount of output current

E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Mixer blanking occurs

Automatic limiting occurs

A beat frequency is generated

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The speed of the logic devices used

Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply

Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero

The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?

An oscillator based on the argon gas diode

A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle

A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

25 to 1

1 to 1

100 to 1

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding

Reed-Solomon character encoding

Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

9.9 watts

24.5 watts

16 watts

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?

The SWR decreases

The front-to-back ratio increases

The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

Omnidirectional

E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire

A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel

A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match

Hairpin match

All of these choices are correct

E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the input impedance to the generator

Very high impedance

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency

SWR

Points with constant resistance

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts