E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted

Operation is restricted to LSB

All of these choices are correct

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

3 miles

10 miles

30 miles

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class

Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5

2

4

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60

60 or 100

180 or 360

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

AMTOR

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

PSK31

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning

Noon

Late at night

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer

A Q meter

An ohmmeter

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy

Decade divider accuracy

Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Detector noise

Induction motor noise

Receiver front-end noise

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise

Ignition noise

Power line noise

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum

It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C

It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage and current are in phase

E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

In the same direction as the current

In a direction opposite to the current

In all directions; omnidirectional

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity

N-type impurity

Donor impurity

E6B12: What is one common use for PIN diodes?

As a constant current source

As a constant voltage source

As a high voltage rectifier

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2

4

6

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz

From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

-10 dB

44 dBm

-20 dBm

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B15: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Neutralization

Select transistors with high beta

All of these choices are correct

E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?

It is a low-pass filter

It is a band-pass filter

It is a notch filter

E7D17: What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

The inverter design does not require any output filtering

It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power" from the unused portion of the AC cycle

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

An echo caused by a long time delay

A reduction in high frequency response

Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Through a tapped coil

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

Regular sinusoidal oscillations

A series of tones that vary between two frequencies

A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second

The amplitude of the pulses

The duration of the pulses

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Direct sequence

Time-domain frequency modulation

Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?

46 volts

92 volts

130 volts

E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Radiation resistance plus space impedance

Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance

Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance

E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts

Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns

Antenna gain

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB

3 dB

24 dB

E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire

A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel

A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system

The omega matching system

The stub matching system

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations

It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position