E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body

Signal Amplification Rating

The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules

Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel

At the highest frequency of the channel

On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space

Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Elapsed time

Specific tone amplitudes

A two-tone signal

E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?

Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact

Send your full call sign and grid square

Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

First Error Correction

Fatal Error Correction

Final Error Correction

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South

East

West

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

All of these choices are correct

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A narrow IF filter

A notch filter

A properly adjusted product detector

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal

You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

157.8 Hz

315.6 Hz

23.67 kHz

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds

110 seconds

440 seconds

E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?

5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery

A transformer

An inductor

E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1

The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

The switching speed of the transistor

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1

6

7

E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

1

3

4

E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency

It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter

It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?

A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals

An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals

A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power

The effective payback period

The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state

It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Where the load line intersects the voltage axis

At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D07: What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It is a brute force filter for the output

To self-resonate at the hum frequency

To provide fixed DC bias for Q1

E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

A de-emphasis network

A heterodyne suppressor

An audio prescaler

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The speed of the logic devices used

Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply

Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Through a tapped coil

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The number of degrees in one cycle

The number of zero crossings in one cycle

The amplitude of the wave

E8B12: What is digital time division multiplexing?

Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter

Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier

Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Independent sideband

Regenerative detection

Exponential addition

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

RMS voltage

Average voltage

DC voltage

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio

Distance from the transmitter

Take-off angle

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees

25 degrees

30 degrees

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D11: What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?

To increase the SWR bandwidth

To lower the losses

To lower the Q

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F07: How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

Higher SWR

Smaller reflection coefficient

Lower velocity factor

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts