E0A10: What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?

Polyethylene

Polytetrafluroethylene

Polymorphic silicon

E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?

12 meter band

17 meter band

30 meter band

E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification

A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient

Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station

E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

18.110 - 18.168 MHz

24.940 - 24.990 MHz

10.100 - 10.150 MHz

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?

In FCC Part 97

In a question pool maintained by the FCC

In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W

1.5 W

1.5 kW

E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Luminance

Hue

Spectral Intensity

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Disconnect

Acknowledgement

Connect

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

First Error Correction

Fatal Error Correction

Final Error Correction

E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

1.8 - 1.9 MHz

10 - 14 MHz

220 - 450 MHz

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves

In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady

At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?

Variability of signal strength with beam heading

Sideband inversion within the ionosphere

Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR

Q

Time

E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions

It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source

It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver

A Class C final amplifier

A Class D final amplifier

E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Solar radio frequency emissions

Geomagnetic storms

Meteor showers

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to inductive reactance

Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B03: The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?

86.5%

63.2%

36.8%

E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees

161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees

181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees

E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?

The resistance divided by the current

The ratio of the current to the resistance

The diameter of the conductor

E6A14: How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

They are both low impedance

An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance

They are both high impedance

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1

2

3

E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?

Reverse Logic

Assertive Logic

Negative logic

E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?

Push-push

Class C

Class AB

E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

A crystal-lattice filter

A Hilbert-transform filter

A phase-inverting filter

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It provides fixed bias for D1

It decouples hum from D1

E7E12: What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

An FM generator circuit

A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

An automatic band-switching circuit

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms

1000 ohms

Very low

E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

The voltage range over which the circuit can lock

The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock

The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection

Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth

All of these choices are correct

E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

60

0.167

0.6

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding

Reed-Solomon character encoding

Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?

123 volts

96 volts

55 volts

E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?

A dipole one-quarter wavelength long

A type of ground-plane antenna

A dipole configured to provide forward gain

E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

36 dB

24 dB

14 dB

E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Azimuth

Radiation resistance

Polarization

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

72 ohms

50 ohms

450 ohms

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be inductive

The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Characteristic impedance

Surge impedance

Standing wave ratio

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals