Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Mica
Zinc oxide
Beryllium Oxide
Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5
2
4
3

E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
The location of the ground control station
The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
The uplink and downlink frequency ranges

E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder
To delay download of telemetry between satellites
To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
To relay messages between satellites

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet

E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?

A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
A fluttery irregular fading
A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South
North
East
West

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct

E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

146.52 Hz
10 Hz
146.52 kHz
1465.20 Hz

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct

E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R

E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant

E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?

6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space
Electric current
A charged capacitor
A battery

E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?

1
2
4
5

E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6E02: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter

E6F11: Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

0.1 V
0.5 V
1.5 V
12 V

E7A04: How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

1
2
4
8

E7B17: Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers?

Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals

E7C01: How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance
A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands
It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage

E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Elevation
Azimuth
Radiation resistance
Polarization

E9D15: Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground
An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10

E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It has a bidirectional pattern
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands