Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
Mica
Zinc oxide
Beryllium Oxide
Uranium Hexaflouride
E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct
E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz
E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
Luminance
Chroma
Hue
Spectral Intensity
E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?
It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?
430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz
E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?
Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?
CW
SSB
FM
RTTY
E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct
E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
Input attenuator accuracy
Time base accuracy
Decade divider accuracy
Temperature coefficient of the logic
E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth
E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?
The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct
E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms
E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability
Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity
E6E02: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?
The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B19: What is a klystron?
A high speed multivibrator
An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube
An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability
A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage
E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G09: What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input?
0.23 volts
2.3 volts
-0.23 volts
-2.3 volts
E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?
A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
240 volts
120 volts
340 volts
170 volts
E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable
E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional
E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node
E9E06: 3-element Yagi?
Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank
E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?
2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10
E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?
It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
