Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?
Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form
E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
E2B14: What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
Tone frequency
Tone amplitude
Sync amplitude
Sync frequency
E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm
E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS
E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles
E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
It reduces receiver sensitivity
It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
94.5 kHz
9.45 kHz
E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds
E5C15: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
Coulomb
Joule
Watt
Volt
E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
The change in collector current with respect to base current
The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
The switching speed of the transistor
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
Push-push
Push-pull
Class C
Class AB
E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?
Greater harmonic suppression
Higher efficiency
Lower losses
Greater transformation range
E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms
E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
Pierce and Zener
Colpitts and Hartley
Armstrong and deForest
Negative feedback and balanced feedback
E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
Human speech
Video signals
Data
All of these choices are correct
E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
2.14
0.214
0.47
47
E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?
Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication
E8D10: What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power?
An SWR meter reading in the forward direction
A modulation meter
An average reading wattmeter
A peak-reading wattmeter
E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable
E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type
E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?
It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized
E9E06: 3-element Yagi?
Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank
E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the generator
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts
