Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct
E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?
.5
1.0
2.0
3.0
E1C07: What is meant by local control?
Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
Automatically manipulating local station controls
Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct
E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
Luminance
Chroma
Hue
Spectral Intensity
E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?
It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?
A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
A fluttery irregular fading
A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
6 meters to 2 meters
E3C07: How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?
The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
The horizontal beam width increases with height
The horizontal beam width decreases with height
E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
SWR
Q
Time
Frequency
E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct
E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds
E5C15: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
Potential differences between two points in space
Electric current
A charged capacitor
A battery
E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
Metal-semiconductor junction
Electrolytic rectifier
CMOS-field effect
Thermionic emission diode
E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
Low power consumption
Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
High speed operation
More efficient arithmetic operations
E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off
E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms
E6F08: Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?
Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?
An "AND" gate
An "OR" gate
A flip-flop
A clock
E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
Push-push
Push-pull
Class C
Class AB
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?
To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal
E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect
E8A08: What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?
The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
It includes built-in error-correction features
It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?
0.707:1
2:1
1.414:1
4:1
E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
SWR vs. frequency charts
Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
Antenna gain
All of these choices are correct
E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees
E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
Characteristic impedance
Reflection coefficient
Velocity factor
Dielectric constant
E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
Reduced safe operating voltage limits
Reduced losses per unit of length
Higher velocity factor
All of these choices are correct
E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions
E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
