Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1B04: What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
The location of the ground control station
The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
The uplink and downlink frequency ranges

E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder
To delay download of telemetry between satellites
To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
To relay messages between satellites

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct

E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter

E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector

E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz

E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback

E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space
Electric current
A charged capacitor
A battery

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop

E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct

E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?

It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

E7B07: Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

Reduced intermodulation products
Increased overall intelligibility
Signal inversion
Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Pi-L
Cascode
Omega
Pi

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1

E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28
14
7
0.07

E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB

E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts
Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
Antenna gain
All of these choices are correct

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid
Omnidirectional
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E04: What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics
To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters
20 meters
10 meters
71 meters

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis

E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power