Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz
E1C07: What is meant by local control?
Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
Automatically manipulating local station controls
Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?
A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
E1E14: For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct
E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south
E2B19: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
They are not permitted above 54 MHz
E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?
Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS
E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
Winlink
RTTY
PSK31
MFSK
E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
E-region skip
D-region skip
Downward bending due to aurora refraction
Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?
Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter
E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
146.52 Hz
10 Hz
146.52 kHz
1465.20 Hz
E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
Fewer components in the receiver
Reduced drift
Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
Improved receiver noise figure
E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?
Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct
E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
38.1 kHz
76.2 kHz
1.332 kHz
2.665 kHz
E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
E5C14: What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
Maidenhead grid
Faraday grid
Elliptical coordinates
Polar coordinates
E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts
E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
Metal-semiconductor junction
Electrolytic rectifier
CMOS-field effect
Thermionic emission diode
E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
Thermal impedance
Resistance
Reactivity
Permeability
E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?
Monostable multivibrator
J-K flip-flop
T flip-flop
Astable multivibrator
E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
The entire cycle
Less than 180 degrees
E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
L networks cannot perform impedance transformation
Pi networks have fewer components
Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output
E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition
E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?
Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage
E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation
E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB
E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat
E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
Reduced safe operating voltage limits
Reduced losses per unit of length
Higher velocity factor
All of these choices are correct
E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation
E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
