E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body

Signal Amplification Rating

The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

The control operator of the packet bulletin board station

The control operators of all the stations in the system

The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link

The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope

An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

The location of the ground control station

The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

A special IF converter

A special front end limiter

A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz

14.020 MHz

28.330 MHz

E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Digipeating

Multi-satellite relaying

Node hopping

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

Equipment with very wide bandwidth

Equipment with very low dynamic range

Equipment with very low gain

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters

30 to 10 meters

6 meters to 2 meters

E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?

In the F1-region

In the F2-region

In the D-region

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals

A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals

A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna

Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer

E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?

Fewer components in the receiver

Reduced drift

Improved receiver noise figure

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Broadband white noise

Heterodyne interference

All of these choices are correct

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to inductive reactance

Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C03: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees

400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees

1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees

E5D14: What is reactive power?

Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor

Power lost because of capacitor leakage

Power consumed in circuit Q

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity

N-type impurity

Donor impurity

E6B12: What is one common use for PIN diodes?

As a constant current source

As a constant voltage source

As a high voltage rectifier

E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Low power consumption

High speed operation

More efficient arithmetic operations

E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

The generation of electrical energy by the application of light

Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light

The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy

The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A14: What is a JK flip-flop?

A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices

A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge

A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption

E7B08: How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

By increasing the driving power

By reducing the driving power

By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input

E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?

It is a low-pass filter

It is a band-pass filter

It is a notch filter

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It provides fixed bias for D1

It decouples hum from D1

E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers

The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H18: What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?

Digital conversion noise

Spurious signals at discrete frequencies

Nyquist limit noise

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal

The degree of carrier suppression

The amplifier gain

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second

The amplitude of the pulses

The duration of the pulses

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D09: What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape

Waves that circle the Earth

Waves produced by a loop antenna

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?

The SWR decreases

The front-to-back ratio increases

The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?

Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance

Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;

Four-sides, each of a different physical length

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q

Greater structural strength

Higher losses

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The delta match

The epsilon match

The stub match

E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

An inductive reactance

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency

SWR

Points with constant resistance

E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It is non-rotatable

It receives equally well in all directions

It is practical for use only on VHF bands