Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
6 meters and 2 meters
6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
2 meters and 1.25 meters
2 meters
E1E08: To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
Employees of the VE
Friends of the VE
Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
All of these choices are correct
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
Which sideband to use
E2B17: What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
600 Hz
3 kHz
2 MHz
6 MHz
E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?
A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct
E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct
E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
The transmitter is not properly neutralized
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
There is more power going into the antenna
E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
Fewer components in the receiver
Reduced drift
Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
Improved receiver noise figure
E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds
E5C03: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
E5D14: What is reactive power?
Wattless, nonproductive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q
E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?
Common Mode Oscillating System
Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
Common Mode Organic Silicon
E6B12: What is one common use for PIN diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF switch
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.
E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer
E7B15: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
Neutralization
Select transistors with high beta
Use a resistor in series with the emitter
All of these choices are correct
E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?
A crystal filter
A cavity filter
A DSP filter
An L-C filter
E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode
E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?
Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method
E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?
Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
Linear amplification
PSK31 data transmission
Multiphase power transmission
Digital data transmission
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?
The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present
E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?
The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional
E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
To swamp out harmonics
To maximize losses
To minimize losses
To minimize the Q
E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
E9F07: How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
Lower loss
Higher SWR
Smaller reflection coefficient
Lower velocity factor
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
