Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
Mica
Zinc oxide
Beryllium Oxide
Uranium Hexaflouride
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
A sentence of up to one year in prison
All of these choices are correct
E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
Specific tone frequencies
Elapsed time
Specific tone amplitudes
A two-tone signal
E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
To relay calls to and from a DX station
E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS
E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
Hellschreiber
PACTOR
RTTY
AMTOR
E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?
A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
A fluttery irregular fading
A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
It stays the same
It increases
It decreases
It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
Detector noise
Induction motor noise
Receiver front-end noise
Atmospheric noise
E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct
E5A08: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
The voltage and current are in phase
The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
2
4
5
6
E6D09: What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?
Electrolytic capacitors
Butterworth filters
Ferrite beads
Steel-core toroids
E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms
E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?
The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?
A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
A dynamic memory storage element
A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions
E7B07: Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
Reduced intermodulation products
Increased overall intelligibility
Signal inversion
Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
E7C01: How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?
Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output
E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?
To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
To balance the low-voltage filament windings
To improve output voltage regulation
To boost the amount of output current
E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
It must have at least two stages
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal
E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
Regular sinusoidal oscillations
Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
A signal that contains three or more discrete tones
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts
E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB
E9B08: How can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be determined?
Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the angular difference
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna
E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?
The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type
E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles
E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?
It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
