E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits

You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property

Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact

Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment

No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

3 miles

10 miles

30 miles

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Because of ionospheric absorption

Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude

Because of the Doppler Effect

E2B04: What is blanking in a video signal?

Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses

Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission

Transmitting a black and white test pattern

E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency

In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Digipeating

Multi-satellite relaying

Node hopping

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

First Error Correction

Fatal Error Correction

Final Error Correction

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station

When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations

When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

All of these choices are correct

E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

The inductance to capacitance ratio

The frequency shift

The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal

Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency

Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz

23.5 kHz

7.12 kHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?

31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees

51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees

91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?

Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies

Because of the Heisenburg Effect

Because conductors are non-linear devices

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

Any FET without a channel

Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

2

3

4

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on

The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light

The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

An ordinary metal

A heavy metal

A liquid semiconductor

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias

Emitter bypass

Output load resistor

E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter

Single-Sideband voice

Video

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor

To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off

To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads

E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

To reduce impulse noise reception

For higher efficiency

To remove third-order distortion products

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero

The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages

It must be neutralized

It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave

A square wave

A sine wave

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII

AX.25

Baudot

E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel

The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index

The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source

E9A10: How is antenna efficiency calculated?

(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%

(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%

(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth

The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal

The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9D03: How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

It increases geometrically

It increases arithmetically

It is essentially unaffected

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the input impedance to the generator

Very high impedance

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts

78.7 watts

420 watts