E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location

E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location

A station controlled by someone other than the licensee

A station operating under automatic control

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA

Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

All of these choices are correct

E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?

The person may be fined or imprisoned

The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant

All these choices are correct

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

A linearly polarized antenna

An isotropic antenna

A log-periodic dipole array

E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

10 KHz

15 KHz

20 KHz

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR

802.11

AMTOR

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

Equipment with very wide bandwidth

Equipment with very low dynamic range

Equipment with very low gain

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles

2500 miles

7500 miles

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses

Match the antenna to the load

All of these choices are correct

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy

Decade divider accuracy

Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?

It would reduce the signal to noise ratio

It would reduce bandwidth

It would increase bandwidth

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?

The highest frequency that will pass current

The lowest frequency that will pass current

The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds

110 seconds

440 seconds

E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

It has to be a direct current circuit

It contains resistance and capacitive reactance

It contains resistance and inductive reactance

E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy

Thermodynamic energy

Kinetic energy

E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Holes

Free protons

Free neutrons

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Tunnel diode

Silicon-controlled rectifier

Zener diode

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?

The heater voltage

The operating temperature

The operating frequency

E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?

A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals

An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals

A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals

E6F08: Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit

Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit

Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Where the load line intersects the voltage axis

At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides negative feedback to improve regulation

It provides a constant load for the voltage source

It provides D1 with current

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By breakdown of the Zener voltage

By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage

The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero

The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Through a tapped coil

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?

Linear amplification

PSK31 data transmission

Multiphase power transmission

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

0.1 Hz

0.3 kHz

1.0 kHz

E8D16: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

170V AC

240V AC

300V AC

E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Radiation resistance plus space impedance

Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance

Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB

18 dB

24 dB

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q

Greater structural strength

Higher losses

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the input impedance to the generator

Very high impedance

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis

Impedance axis

Polar axis

E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations

It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position