Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
Only General class or higher amateur licenses
An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below

E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
All of these choices are correct

E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B14: What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

Tone frequency
Tone amplitude
Sync amplitude
Sync frequency

E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?

Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times

E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude

E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

31 Hz
316 Hz
550 Hz
2.16 kHz

E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz

E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

CW
SSB
FM
RTTY

E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A front-end filter or pre-selector
A narrow IF filter
A notch filter
A properly adjusted product detector

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels
Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
Signals which appear at one IF but not another
Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A15: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

3.76 MHz
1.78 MHz
11.18 MHz
22.36 MHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D15: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

0.866
1.0
0.5
0.707

E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Metal-semiconductor junction
Electrolytic rectifier
CMOS-field effect
Thermionic emission diode

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None
One
Two
Four

E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct

E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video

E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple

E7E01: Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
A reactance modulator on the oscillator
A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
A balanced modulator on the oscillator

E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers together

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28
14
7
0.07

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs

E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

It includes built-in error-correction features
It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage

E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match

E9F13: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
The same as the generator output impedance

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle