Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas
E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
Discontinue forwarding all messages
E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?
The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
30 seconds
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
Any licensed amateur operator
Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only Amateur Extra Class operators
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360
E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?
A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?
144.39 MHz
144.20 MHz
145.02 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?
A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
A fluttery irregular fading
A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles
E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
It stays the same
It increases
It decreases
It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct
E4B12: What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter
When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test
When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed
E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz
E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D10: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
The change of collector current with respect to base current
The change of base current with respect to collector current
The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
The change of collector current with respect to gate current
E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop
E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
Low power consumption
Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
High speed operation
More efficient arithmetic operations
E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off
E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms
E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?
The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
E7B17: Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers?
Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple
E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers together
E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
For smoothing power-supply output
As an audio filter in a receiver
E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through a capacitive divider
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
240 volts
120 volts
340 volts
170 volts
E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna
E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable
E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB
E9D15: Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?
A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground
An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?
It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?
A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle
