E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Mica

Zinc oxide

Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge

300 Hz above the lower band edge

1 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

The location is near an area of political conflict

The location is of geographical or horticultural importance

The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing

Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license

All these choices are correct

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation

Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation

Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK

E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

To relay calls to and from a DX station

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Disconnect

Acknowledgement

Connect

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Storing and forwarding digital messages

Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon

High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles

2500 miles

7500 miles

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately twice the distance

By approximately one-half the distance

By approximately four times the distance

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR

Q

Time

E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions

It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source

It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?

Fewer components in the receiver

Reduced drift

Improved receiver noise figure

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E07: How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer

By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope

By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer

E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Maximum

R/L

L/R

E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current

14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees

191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees

161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space

A charged capacitor

A battery

E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1

The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

The switching speed of the transistor

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Electrolytic rectifier

CMOS-field effect

Thermionic emission diode

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on

The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light

The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions

E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel

Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series

Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?

A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit

A dynamic memory storage element

A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions

E7B14: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?

Emitter bypass

Input coupling

Hum filtering

E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple

Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply

To balance the low-voltage filament windings

To boost the amount of output current

E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits

A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands

Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp

The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply

The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H11: What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Broadband noise

Digital conversion noise

Nyquist limit noise

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Independent sideband

Regenerative detection

Exponential addition

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

RMS voltage

Average voltage

DC voltage

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB

3.05 dB

4.30 dB

E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Feed point impedance may become negative

The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse

Element spacing limits could be exceeded

E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?

Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance

Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;

Four-sides, each of a different physical length

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match

The delta match

The omega match

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals