Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?
There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below
E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session
E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?
To provide for experimental amateur communications
To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
To provide additional spectrum for personal use
To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
Because the satellite is spinning
Because of ionospheric absorption
Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
Because of the Doppler Effect
E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360
E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?
Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times
E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct
E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles
E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?
Variability of signal strength with beam heading
Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
It reduces receiver sensitivity
It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
E4E07: How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5C11: What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates?
The magnitude and phase of the point
The sine and cosine values
The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
The tangent and cotangent values
E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?
Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
Because of the Heisenburg Effect
Because of skin effect
Because conductors are non-linear devices
E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?
The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
E7B03: Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?
A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity
E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter
E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?
A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network
E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?
The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp
The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply
E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
Through a quartz crystal
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?
6000
3
2000
1/3
E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage
E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?
75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees
E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional
E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?
In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite
E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
10 meters
6.9 meters
24 meters
50 meters
E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis
E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts
