E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class

Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Minimum passing score of 70%

Minimum passing score of 80%

Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Luminance

Hue

Spectral Intensity

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?

144.20 MHz

145.02 MHz

146.52 MHz

E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

RTTY

PSK31

MFSK

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves

In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady

At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?

Variability of signal strength with beam heading

Sideband inversion within the ionosphere

Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Duration

SWR

Q

E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

All of these choices are correct

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity

The multiplex distortion stability

The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Too little gain

Lack of neutralization

Positive feedback

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise

Ignition noise

Power line noise

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz

23.5 kHz

7.12 kHz

E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current

14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Point 2

Point 5

Point 6

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts

1000 watts

1600 watts

E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

P-type

Bipolar

Insulated gate

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts

1.5 volts

13.6 volts

E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Thermal impedance

Resistance

Reactivity

E6E12: What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?

An automatic notch filter

A special filter that emphasizes image responses

A filter that removes impulse noise

E6F11: Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

0.1 V

1.5 V

12 V

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?

Fixed bias

Collector load

Voltage regulation

E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

A crystal-lattice filter

A Hilbert-transform filter

A phase-inverting filter

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply

To balance the low-voltage filament windings

To boost the amount of output current

E7E04: What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer

By driving a product detector with a DSB signal

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope

To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop

To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

0.21

94

24

E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal

Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave

A square wave

A sine wave

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000

2000

1/3

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding

Reed-Solomon character encoding

Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?

46 volts

92 volts

130 volts

E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.0 dB

8.15 dB

2.79 dB

E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Feed point impedance may become negative

The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse

Element spacing limits could be exceeded

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well

It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies

It must be neutralized

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system

The omega matching system

The stub matching system

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure

By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions