Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
The location is near an area of political conflict
The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct
E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
A sentence of up to one year in prison
All of these choices are correct
E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct
E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz
E2B19: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
They are not permitted above 54 MHz
E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm
E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude
E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
Long-path
Sporadic-E
Transequatorial
Auroral
E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region
E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth
E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
An electrical-sparking signal
A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms
E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
Potential differences between two points in space
Electric current
A charged capacitor
A battery
E6A15: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?
N-type
P-type
Superconductor-type
Bipolar-type
E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
Varactor diode
Tunnel diode
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener diode
E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D09: What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?
Electrolytic capacitors
Butterworth filters
Ferrite beads
Steel-core toroids
E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?
A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor
E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
It provides D1 with current
E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?
To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal
E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
It must have at least two stages
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal
E8A09: What type of waveform is produced by human speech?
Sinusoidal
Logarithmic
Irregular
Trapezoidal
E8B12: What is digital time division multiplexing?
Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?
4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts
E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?
A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
A type of ground-plane antenna
A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
A dipole configured to provide forward gain
E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
The front-to-back ratio increases
The front-to-back ratio decreases
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced
E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long
E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?
It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
It has high gain
It minimizes harmonic radiation
It may be used for multiband operation
E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct
E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity
E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
