E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact

Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band

No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height

You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins

You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA

Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

All of these choices are correct

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5

2

4

E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?

To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels

To provide additional spectrum for personal use

To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Elapsed time

Specific tone amplitudes

A two-tone signal

E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable

It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station

Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of characters transmitted per second

The number of characters transmitted per minute

The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is full

When the Moon is at apogee

When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial

Sporadic-E

Long-path

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy

Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery

CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

All of these choices are correct

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated

Cross modulation occurs

Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Quieting

Cross-modulation interference

Squelch gain rollback

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels

Signals which appear at one IF but not another

Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Capacitance

Conductance

Resistance

E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C14: What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

Maidenhead grid

Faraday grid

Elliptical coordinates

E5D10: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

By dividing the reactive power by the power factor

By dividing the apparent power by the power factor

By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor

E6A14: How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

They are both low impedance

An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance

They are both high impedance

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?

2

4

6

E6D09: What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?

Electrolytic capacitors

Butterworth filters

Steel-core toroids

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance

Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability

A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability

A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high

E7B18: Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

High power gain

High filament voltage

Low bandwidth

E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple

Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7D17: What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

The inverter design does not require any output filtering

It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power" from the unused portion of the AC cycle

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator

Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference

Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28

7

0.07

E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform

The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform

The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B10: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?

Frequency shift keying

A diversity combiner

Pulse compression

E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz

Approximately 26 Hz

Approximately 104 Hz

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit

It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line

It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.0 dB

8.15 dB

2.79 dB

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison

National Electrical Code

Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth

The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal

The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line

Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

An inductive reactance

The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals