E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location

E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

3 miles

10 miles

30 miles

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator

Under automatic control there is no control operator

Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope

An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

A linearly polarized antenna

An isotropic antenna

A log-periodic dipole array

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz

29.6 MHz

52.525 MHz

E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable

It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station

Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Polar coordinates

Time and frequency

Radio direction finding LOPs

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

1.8 - 1.9 MHz

10 - 14 MHz

220 - 450 MHz

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves

In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady

At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?

The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting

Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

All of these choices are correct

E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

146.52 Hz

10 Hz

146.52 kHz

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A narrow IF filter

A notch filter

A properly adjusted product detector

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal

Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency

Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

63.2 MHz

10.1 kHz

63.2 kHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees

E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

70.7 Watts

141.4 Watts

200 Watts

E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?

2

4

5

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability

Lower distortion

Immune to damage from static discharge

E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?

The heater voltage

The operating temperature

The operating frequency

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state

It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

E7B10: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Load resistors

Self bias

Feedback

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

To provide line voltage stabilization

Peak clipping

Hum filtering

E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Mixer blanking occurs

Automatic limiting occurs

A beat frequency is generated

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower

Two frequency multipliers

A voltage divider

E7G08: How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

It increases linearly with increasing frequency

It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Pierce and Zener

Armstrong and deForest

Negative feedback and balanced feedback

E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?

A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps

A running display of alpha-numeric characters

None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII

AX.25

Baudot

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

RMS voltage

Average power

Resting voltage

E9A11: Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

Isolate the coax shield from ground

Shorten the radiating element

Reduce the diameter of the radiating element

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB

3 dB

24 dB

E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases

The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis

Impedance axis

Polar axis

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts

78.7 watts

420 watts