Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct
E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz
E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
Luminance
Chroma
Hue
Spectral Intensity
E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?
Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times
E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
6 meters to 2 meters
E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?
CW
SSB
FM
RTTY
E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct
E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance
E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
E5D12: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts
E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
Holes
Free electrons
Free protons
Free neutrons
E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
Varactor diode
Tunnel diode
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener diode
E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct
E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
The heater voltage
The anode voltage
The operating temperature
The operating frequency
E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?
Field effect transistor
Nuvistor
Silicon controlled rectifier
Triac
E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct
E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
To reduce impulse noise reception
For higher efficiency
To remove third-order distortion products
E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop
E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?
Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?
Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
All of these choices are correct
E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition
E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
240 volts
120 volts
340 volts
170 volts
E9A11: Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?
Install a good radial system
Isolate the coax shield from ground
Shorten the radiating element
Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
E9B10: What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases
E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node
E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
E9F15: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts
