E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge

Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field

Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules

Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator

Under automatic control there is no control operator

Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Minimum passing score of 70%

Minimum passing score of 80%

Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W

1.5 W

1.5 kW

E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

FM and CW

SSB and SSTV

PSK and Packet

E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?

A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

AMTOR

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

PSK31

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The F1 layer

The F2 layer

The D layer

E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?

Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator

Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator

Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

D-region absorption

Faraday rotation

Ground wave

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy

Decade divider accuracy

Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders

Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise

Ignition noise

Power line noise

E5A08: What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees

The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds

9 seconds

900 seconds

E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees

191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees

161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D10: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

By dividing the reactive power by the power factor

By dividing the apparent power by the power factor

By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons

Free protons

Free electrons

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Electrolytic rectifier

CMOS-field effect

Thermionic emission diode

E6C03: Which of the following describes tri-state logic?

Logic devices that utilize ternary math

Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts

Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic

Tubular

Radar

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

The generation of electrical energy by the application of light

Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It decreases

It stays the same

It becomes unstable

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Tune the stage for maximum SWR

Tune both the input and output for maximum power

Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Higher efficiency

Lower losses

Greater transformation range

E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output

It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers

The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower

Two frequency multipliers

A voltage divider

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages

It must be neutralized

It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

25 to 1

1 to 1

100 to 1

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit

It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line

It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Transmission-line length

Constant feed point impedance

Sunspot activity and time of day

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison

National Electrical Code

Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

To swamp out harmonics

To maximize losses

To minimize the Q

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

A large circularly-polarized antenna

A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core

A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire