Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct
E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz
E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct
E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW
E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz
E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
Hellschreiber
PACTOR
RTTY
AMTOR
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct
E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?
Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter
E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
All of these choices are correct
E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
Detector noise
Induction motor noise
Receiver front-end noise
Atmospheric noise
E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
Solar radio frequency emissions
Thunderstorms
Geomagnetic storms
Meteor showers
E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor
E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
Holes
Free electrons
Free protons
Free neutrons
E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
E6F08: Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?
Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7B14: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Input coupling
Hum filtering
E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?
Greater harmonic suppression
Higher efficiency
Lower losses
Greater transformation range
E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
To provide line voltage stabilization
To provide a voltage reference
Peak clipping
Hum filtering
E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
For smoothing power-supply output
As an audio filter in a receiver
E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
It must have at least two stages
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal
E8A08: What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts
E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
E9B10: What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss
E9D11: What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?
To increase the SWR bandwidth
To lower the losses
To lower the Q
To cancel capacitive reactance
E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct
E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity
E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
Voltage circles and current arcs
Resistance circles and reactance arcs
Voltage lines and current chords
Resistance lines and reactance chords
E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
