E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

All of the choices are correct

E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?

12 meter band

17 meter band

30 meter band

E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

60 Hz

170 Hz

1.5 kHz

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link

Automatically manipulating local station controls

Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations

A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W

1.5 W

1.5 kW

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite

The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth

Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz

29.6 MHz

52.525 MHz

E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency

In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

FSK441

PACTOR III

Olivia

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band

Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands

Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately twice the distance

By approximately one-half the distance

By approximately four times the distance

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses

Match the antenna to the load

All of these choices are correct

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated

Cross modulation occurs

Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals

It reduces receiver sensitivity

It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range

E4D06: What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Amplifier desensitization

Neutralization

Adjacent channel interference

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver

A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to inductive reactance

Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C15: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?

100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

70.7 Watts

141.4 Watts

200 Watts

E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Holes

Free protons

Free neutrons

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

1

3

4

E6D15: What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?

They can display changes instantly

They are visible in all light conditions

They can be easily interchanged with other display devices

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction

Point-to-point construction

Wave-soldering construction

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier

A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?

A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit

A dynamic memory storage element

A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions

E7B08: How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

By increasing the driving power

By reducing the driving power

By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

To provide line voltage stabilization

Peak clipping

Hum filtering

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator

Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference

Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms

1000 ohms

Very low

E7H12: Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Phase splitter

Hex inverter

Chroma demodulator

E8A01: What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

A sine wave

A cosine wave

A tangent wave

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII

AX.25

Baudot

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

9.9 watts

24.5 watts

16 watts

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled

The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy

The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?

Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance

Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;

Four-sides, each of a different physical length

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The delta match

The epsilon match

The stub match

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70

0.30

0.10

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Free-space radiation directivity chart

Elevation angle radiation pattern chart

Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts

632 watts

63.2 watts