Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
All HF bands

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
To separate the calling stations from the DX station
To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
All of these choices are correct

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder
To delay download of telemetry between satellites
To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
To relay messages between satellites

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

D-region absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Ground wave

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm

E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels
Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
Signals which appear at one IF but not another
Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

10.1 MHz
63.2 MHz
10.1 kHz
63.2 kHz

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8

E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?

Coulomb
Joule
Watt
Volt

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction

E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

2 dB
-10 dB
44 dBm
-20 dBm

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A14: What is a JK flip-flop?

A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption

E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

Field effect transistor
Nuvistor
Silicon controlled rectifier
Triac

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Pi-L
Cascode
Omega
Pi

E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

To provide line voltage stabilization
To provide a voltage reference
Peak clipping
Hum filtering

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave

E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

2.14
0.214
0.47
47

E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
Easily copied by ear if necessary
Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?

120V AC
340V AC
85V AC
170V AC

E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.17 dB
9.85 dB
12.5 dB
14.15 dB

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1
A reflection coefficient greater than 1
A dielectric constant greater than 1
An SWR greater than 1:1

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits
Reduced losses per unit of length
Higher velocity factor
All of these choices are correct

E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Voltage circles and current arcs
Resistance circles and reactance arcs
Voltage lines and current chords
Resistance lines and reactance chords

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts
252 watts
632 watts
63.2 watts