Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
All of these choices are correct
E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?
.5
1.0
2.0
3.0
E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?
The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
All of these choices are correct
E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct
E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B19: What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
They are not permitted above 54 MHz
E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31
E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading
E3B07: Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
High D layer absorption
Meteor scatter
Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
Receipt of a signal by more than one path
E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?
CW
SSB
FM
RTTY
E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
Amplitude
Duration
SWR
Q
E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
E4C12: What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
Output-offset overshoot
Filter ringing
Thermal-noise distortion
Undesired signals may be heard
E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct
E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
94.5 kHz
9.45 kHz
E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
E5C20: Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8
E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current
E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
1
2
3
6
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
E6E12: What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?
An automatic notch filter
A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
A special filter that emphasizes image responses
A filter that removes impulse noise
E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?
The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
E7A10: What is a truth table?
A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp
E7B07: Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
Reduced intermodulation products
Increased overall intelligibility
Signal inversion
Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?
A Phase Inverter Load network
A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers together
E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q
E7H18: What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?
Phase noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise
E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
Regular sinusoidal oscillations
Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
A signal that contains three or more discrete tones
E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition
E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts
E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?
1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB
E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?
Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss
E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency
E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct
E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?
Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
1977 watts
78.7 watts
420 watts
286 watts
