E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation

Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings

Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

Only General class or higher amateur licenses

An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location

A station controlled by someone other than the licensee

A station operating under automatic control

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F01: On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz

Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

10 KHz

15 KHz

20 KHz

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR

802.11

AMTOR

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Storing and forwarding digital messages

Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon

High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning

Noon

Late at night

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy

Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery

CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

All of these choices are correct

E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

The inductance to capacitance ratio

The frequency shift

The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker

Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Capacitance

Conductance

Resistance

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?

400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees

700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts

1000 watts

1600 watts

E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Gate 1, gate 2, drain

Emitter, base, collector

Emitter, base 1, base 2

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Low power consumption

High speed operation

More efficient arithmetic operations

E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Thermal impedance

Resistance

Reactivity

E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

MMICs require no operating bias

Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It decreases

It stays the same

It becomes unstable

E7A04: How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

1

4

8

E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Creation of parasitic oscillations

Low efficiency

All of these choices are correct

E7C01: How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground

Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground

An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply

To balance the low-voltage filament windings

To boost the amount of output current

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope

To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop

To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp

The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply

The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages

It must be neutralized

It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

By using a grid dip meter

By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter

By using an absorption wavemeter

E8B10: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?

Frequency shift keying

A diversity combiner

Pulse compression

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts

120 volts

170 volts

E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?

A dipole one-quarter wavelength long

A type of ground-plane antenna

A dipole configured to provide forward gain

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter

It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization

It decreases the ground loss

E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be inductive

The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The termination impedance

The line length

The center conductor resistivity

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency

SWR

Points with constant resistance

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts