Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
Mica
Zinc oxide
Beryllium Oxide
Uranium Hexaflouride
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?
.5
1.0
2.0
3.0
E1C07: What is meant by local control?
Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
Automatically manipulating local station controls
Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
6 meters and 2 meters
6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
2 meters and 1.25 meters
2 meters
E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
A sentence of up to one year in prison
All of these choices are correct
E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
440 - 450 MHz
53 - 54 MHz
222 - 223 MHz
420 - 430 MHz
E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO
E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
30
60
525
1080
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude
E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
Winlink
RTTY
PSK31
MFSK
E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
Equipment with very wide bandwidth
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?
D-region absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Ground wave
E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct
E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
Input attenuator accuracy
Time base accuracy
Decade divider accuracy
Temperature coefficient of the logic
E4C13: How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
All of these choices are correct
E4D03: How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
The highest frequency that will pass current
The lowest frequency that will pass current
The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D16: What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
E6F07: What is a solid state relay?
A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
A passive delay line
E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer
E7B02: What is a Class D amplifier?
A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improved linearity
An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
A frequency doubling amplifier
E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?
A crystal filter
A cavity filter
A DSP filter
An L-C filter
E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage
E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
To reduce impulse noise reception
For higher efficiency
To remove third-order distortion products
E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain
E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?
6000
3
2000
1/3
E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition
E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts
E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
The front-to-back ratio increases
The front-to-back ratio decreases
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced
E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
It causes increased SWR
It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
It reduces low-angle radiation
It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node
E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
Characteristic impedance
Reflection coefficient
Velocity factor
Dielectric constant
E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
