Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?

In FCC Part 97
In a question pool maintained by the FCC
In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1F08: Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
Communications that have a religious content
Communications in a language other than English

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband

E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet

E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles

E3C08: What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?

Oblique-angle ray
Pedersen ray
Ordinary ray
Heaviside ray

E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C12: What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Output-offset overshoot
Filter ringing
Thermal-noise distortion
Undesired signals may be heard

E4D06: What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Amplifier desensitization
Neutralization
Adjacent channel interference
Intermodulation interference

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.02 seconds
0.04 seconds
20 seconds
40 seconds

E5C23: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?

Point 1
Point 3
Point 5
Point 8

E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?

Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
Because of the Heisenburg Effect
Because of skin effect
Because conductors are non-linear devices

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2
4
5
6

E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2
4
5
6

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes unstable

E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high

E7B09: Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?

The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current

E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter

E7D02: What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
The control device's duty cycle is controlled to produce a constant average output voltage
It gives a ramp voltage at its output

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?

An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave

E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication

E8D07: What is an electromagnetic wave?

Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire

E9E06: 3-element Yagi?

Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank

E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis

E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map
Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source