E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits

You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property

Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge

300 Hz above the lower band edge

1 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30 seconds

5 minutes

10 minutes

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence

A sentence of up to one year in prison

All of these choices are correct

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline

A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline

A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Luminance

Hue

Spectral Intensity

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift

It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon

All of these choices are correct

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters

30 to 10 meters

6 meters to 2 meters

E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

SSB

FM

RTTY

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B12: What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test

When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit

When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver

A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

1.89 kHz

94.5 kHz

9.45 kHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?

704 W

252 W

1.42 mW

E6A15: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?

N-type

Superconductor-type

Bipolar-type

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic

Tubular

Radar

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

The generation of electrical energy by the application of light

Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability

A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability

A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high

E7B09: Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?

The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current

The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current

The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D17: What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

The inverter design does not require any output filtering

It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power" from the unused portion of the AC cycle

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals

By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

1

0.03

76

E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

Wide-band AF and RF power amplification

Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter

Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling

E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

Regular sinusoidal oscillations

A series of tones that vary between two frequencies

A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

FM compressibility

Quieting index

Percentage of modulation

E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

It includes built-in error-correction features

It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code

It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?

0.707:1

1.414:1

4:1

E9A01: Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?

A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity

A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas

A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line

Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The termination impedance

The line length

The center conductor resistivity

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts