Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5
2
4
3

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

A special IF converter
A special front end limiter
A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
No other hardware is needed

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters

E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B12: What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter
When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test
When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed

E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

13.845 MHz
14.755 MHz
14.445 MHz
15.210 MHz

E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?

6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees

E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?

704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW

E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common Mode Oscillating System
Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
Common Mode Organic Silicon

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Metal-semiconductor junction
Electrolytic rectifier
CMOS-field effect
Thermionic emission diode

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D09: What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?

Electrolytic capacitors
Butterworth filters
Ferrite beads
Steel-core toroids

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Selenium
Silicon
Cadmium Sulfide
Copper oxide

E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias

E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?

A crystal filter
A cavity filter
A DSP filter
An L-C filter

E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

An echo caused by a long time delay
A reduction in high frequency response
Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal

E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency

E8A04: What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?

The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage
The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000
3
2000
1/3

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts

E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?

A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
A type of ground-plane antenna
A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
A dipole configured to provide forward gain

E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB

E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Characteristic impedance
Reflection coefficient
Velocity factor
Dielectric constant

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts
78.7 watts
420 watts
286 watts