Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
Only General class or higher amateur licenses
An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

The location is near an area of political conflict
The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
A control operator need not be present at the control point
A control operator must be present at the control point
Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form

E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct

E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO

E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

3 KHz
10 KHz
15 KHz
20 KHz

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
To separate the calling stations from the DX station
To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
All of these choices are correct

E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters

E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

CW
SSB
FM
RTTY

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR
Q
Time
Frequency

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C12: What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Output-offset overshoot
Filter ringing
Thermal-noise distortion
Undesired signals may be heard

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
94.5 kHz
9.45 kHz

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?

31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?

704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW

E6A01: In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?

In high-current rectifier circuits
In high-power audio circuits
At microwave frequencies
At very low frequency RF circuits

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Varactor diode
Tunnel diode
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener diode

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer

E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp
The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H18: What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?

Phase noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise

E8A01: What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
A tangent wave

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?

120V AC
340V AC
85V AC
170V AC

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees

E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases

E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?

In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F10: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts