Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?
Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
Only General class or higher amateur licenses
An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
E2B08: Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
A separate VHF or UHF audio link
Frequency modulation of the video carrier
All of these choices are correct
E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
FSK441
PACTOR III
Olivia
JT65
E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum
E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region
E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
Amplitude
Duration
SWR
Q
E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
A front-end filter or pre-selector
A narrow IF filter
A notch filter
A properly adjusted product detector
E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
Solar radio frequency emissions
Thunderstorms
Geomagnetic storms
Meteor showers
E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R
E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.73
0.5
0.866
0.577
E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride
E6F08: Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?
Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?
A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
A dynamic memory storage element
A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions
E7B02: What is a Class D amplifier?
A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improved linearity
An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
A frequency doubling amplifier
E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?
It is a low-pass filter
It is a band-pass filter
It is a high-pass filter
It is a notch filter
E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?
To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
To allow for remote control of the power supply
To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?
Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
Incoming RF is mixed to "baseband" for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers
E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
0.21
94
47
24
E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
By using a grid dip meter
By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
By using an absorption wavemeter
By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB
E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB
E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
Elevation
Azimuth
Radiation resistance
Polarization
E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?
The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?
A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
