Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge
300 Hz below the upper band edge
1 kHz below the upper band edge
3 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
A control operator need not be present at the control point
A control operator must be present at the control point
Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?

The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct

E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south

E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

PAL
DRM
Scottie
NTSC

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?

144.39 MHz
144.20 MHz
145.02 MHz
146.52 MHz

E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

48 baud
110 baud
300 baud
1200 baud

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer

E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South
North
East
West

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

100 watts
125 watts
25 watts
75 watts

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted

E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Solar radio frequency emissions
Thunderstorms
Geomagnetic storms
Meteor showers

E5A15: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

3.76 MHz
1.78 MHz
11.18 MHz
22.36 MHz

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8

E5D10: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity

E6B08: Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

Metal-semiconductor junction
Electrolytic rectifier
CMOS-field effect
Thermionic emission diode

E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?

A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

2 dB
-10 dB
44 dBm
-20 dBm

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power
The effective payback period
The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
The relative fraction of light that is converted to current

E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?

A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
A dynamic memory storage element
A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions

E7B19: What is a klystron?

A high speed multivibrator
An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube
An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability
A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation

E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?

An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements
It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms

E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?

An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?

Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
All of these choices are correct

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?

0.707:1
2:1
1.414:1
4:1

E9A01: Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?

A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity
A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas
A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional

E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat

E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern

E9F14: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts
78.7 watts
420 watts
286 watts