E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge

Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field

Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact

Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment

No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5

2

4

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz

29.6 MHz

52.525 MHz

E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

6 meters

2 meters

33 cm

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station

When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations

When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?

The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt

A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting

Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer

A Q meter

An ohmmeter

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated

Cross modulation occurs

Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?

Fewer components in the receiver

Reduced drift

Improved receiver noise figure

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other

The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

63.2 MHz

10.1 kHz

63.2 kHz

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds

110 seconds

440 seconds

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D10: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

By dividing the reactive power by the power factor

By dividing the apparent power by the power factor

By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage

To protect the substrate from excessive voltages

To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating

E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?

As a constant current source

As a constant voltage source

As a high voltage rectifier

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1

2

3

E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency

A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver

A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F08: Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit

Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit

Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B03: Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies

A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients

A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network

A network with only three discrete parts

A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output

It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By breakdown of the Zener voltage

By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower

Two frequency multipliers

A voltage divider

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28

7

0.07

E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

The voltage range over which the circuit can lock

The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock

The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

By using a grid dip meter

By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter

By using an absorption wavemeter

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C12: What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

Faster transmission rate

The signal can overpower interfering signals

Foreign language characters can be sent

E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?

123 volts

96 volts

55 volts

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements

The angle between the half-power radiation points

The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

Omnidirectional

E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well

It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies

It must be neutralized

E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Characteristic impedance

Velocity factor

Dielectric constant

E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

10 meters

24 meters

50 meters

E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Radiation resistance

Antenna radiation pattern

Radio propagation

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts

78.7 watts

420 watts