E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B04: What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society

A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations

Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class

Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E14: For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course

No expenses are authorized for reimbursement

Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry

To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals

To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B08: Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Frequency-modulated sub-carrier

A separate VHF or UHF audio link

Frequency modulation of the video carrier

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

FSK441

PACTOR III

Olivia

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

First Error Correction

Fatal Error Correction

Final Error Correction

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

SSB

FM

RTTY

E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

All of these choices are correct

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude

A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization

Cross-modulation interference

Frequency discrimination

E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

A large increase in background noise

A reduction in apparent signal strength

The desired signal can no longer be heard

E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

63.2 MHz

10.1 kHz

63.2 kHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C22: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?

40 - j31,400

31,400 + j40

31,400 - j40

E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?

Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies

Because of the Heisenburg Effect

Because conductors are non-linear devices

E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?

2

4

5

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Tunnel diode

Silicon-controlled rectifier

Zener diode

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts

1.5 volts

13.6 volts

E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Thermal impedance

Resistance

Reactivity

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance

Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F08: Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit

Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit

Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit

E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state

It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Creation of parasitic oscillations

Low efficiency

All of these choices are correct

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Switching voltage regulator

Grounded emitter amplifier

Emitter follower

E7E04: What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer

By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer

By driving a product detector with a DSB signal

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator

Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference

Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

1

0.03

76

E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal

Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000

2000

1/3

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Independent sideband

Regenerative detection

Exponential addition

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit

It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line

It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio

Distance from the transmitter

Take-off angle

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Omnidirectional

A cardioid

A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased

No change occurs

It becomes flat

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match

Hairpin match

All of these choices are correct

E9F15: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

Very low impedance

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the output impedance of the generator

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts

632 watts

63.2 watts