Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct
E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
1 mile
3 miles
10 miles
30 miles
E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?
70 cm
70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
70 cm and 33 cm
33 cm and 13 cm
E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct
E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct
E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
FM and CW
SSB and SSTV
PSK and Packet
All of these choices are correct
E2B08: Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
A separate VHF or UHF audio link
Frequency modulation of the video carrier
All of these choices are correct
E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?
It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?
430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C07: How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?
The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
The horizontal beam width increases with height
The horizontal beam width decreases with height
E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct
E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
100 watts
125 watts
25 watts
75 watts
E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated
E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance
E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
In the same direction as the current
In a direction opposite to the current
In all directions; omnidirectional
In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
The change in collector current with respect to base current
The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
The switching speed of the transistor
E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied
A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride
E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
The output RF power divided by the input dc power
The effective payback period
The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
E7A04: How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
1
2
4
8
E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
Tune the stage for maximum SWR
Tune both the input and output for maximum power
Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
Use a phase inverter in the output filter
E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
A Butterworth filter
An active LC filter
A passive op-amp filter
A Chebyshev filter
E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?
To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
To balance the low-voltage filament windings
To improve output voltage regulation
To boost the amount of output current
E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?
Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
Incoming RF is mixed to "baseband" for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers
E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop
E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?
An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube
E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?
A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps
A series of pulses with varying patterns
A running display of alpha-numeric characters
None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope
E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?
The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
E8C12: What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?
Faster transmission rate
The signal can overpower interfering signals
Foreign language characters can be sent
Some types of errors can be detected
E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?
It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks
E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?
1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB
E9B10: What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
4
3
1
7
E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
E9F14: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?
It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
