Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests

E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?

The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct

E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Because the satellite is spinning
Because of ionospheric absorption
Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
Because of the Doppler Effect

E2B08: Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
A separate VHF or UHF audio link
Frequency modulation of the video carrier
All of these choices are correct

E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Unnumbered Information
Disconnect
Acknowledgement
Connect

E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

RTTY
PACTOR
MT63
PSK31

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South
North
East
West

E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately

E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm

E4D05: What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct

E5A14: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

44.72 MHz
22.36 MHz
3.56 MHz
1.78 MHz

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees

E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons

E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?

As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier

E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct

E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
It can be used to make an audio delay line
It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
It samples and stores analog signals

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride

E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

Selenium
Silicon
Cadmium Sulfide
Copper oxide

E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high

E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
The entire cycle
Less than 180 degrees

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter

E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Switching voltage regulator
Grounded emitter amplifier
Linear voltage regulator
Emitter follower

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q

E7H11: What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Broadband noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise

E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

2.5 to 1
25 to 1
1 to 1
100 to 1

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?

120V AC
340V AC
85V AC
170V AC

E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Radiation resistance plus space impedance
Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio
They are the same
The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases

E9D03: How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

It increases geometrically
It increases arithmetically
It is essentially unaffected
It decreases

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be capacitive
The driven element reactance must be inductive
The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals