Ham Extra License Practice Quiz

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E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E08: To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Employees of the VE
Friends of the VE
Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
All of these choices are correct
E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?

To provide for experimental amateur communications
To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
To provide additional spectrum for personal use
To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south
E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

PAL
DRM
Scottie
NTSC
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

Winlink
RTTY
PSK31
MFSK
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?

Variability of signal strength with beam heading
Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
The transmitter is not properly neutralized
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
There is more power going into the antenna
E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E07: How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?

400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Holes
Free electrons
Free protons
Free neutrons
E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?

It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride
E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor
E7A09: D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic "1"?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
To allow for remote control of the power supply
To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements
It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain
E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts
E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.17 dB
9.85 dB
12.5 dB
14.15 dB
E9B10: What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?

Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;
Four-sides, each of a different physical length
E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms
E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be capacitive
The driven element reactance must be inductive
The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the generator
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle