Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
All of these choices are correct

E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Digipeating
Store-and-forward
Multi-satellite relaying
Node hopping

E2E11: What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
Use of high speed CW or digital modes
Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
All of these choices are correct

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
6 meters to 2 meters

E3C07: How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
The horizontal beam width increases with height
The horizontal beam width decreases with height

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
An electrical-sparking signal
A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
Harmonics of the AC power line frequency

E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
94.5 kHz
9.45 kHz

E5B03: The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?

86.5%
63.2%
36.8%
13.5%

E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?

173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons

E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector

E6C03: Which of the following describes tri-state logic?

Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
Logic devices that utilize ternary math
Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices

E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?

It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F01: What is photoconductivity?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?

An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter

E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
Incoming RF is mixed to "baseband" for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
For smoothing power-supply output
As an audio filter in a receiver

E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Human speech
Video signals
Data
All of these choices are correct

E8B12: What is digital time division multiplexing?

Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

It includes built-in error-correction features
It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts

E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.17 dB
9.85 dB
12.5 dB
14.15 dB

E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?

Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;
Four-sides, each of a different physical length

E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat

E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?

It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern

E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the generator
Very high impedance
Very low impedance

E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both