Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?
There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem
E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?
The exact upper band edge
300 Hz below the upper band edge
1 kHz below the upper band edge
3 kHz below the upper band edge
E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct
E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct
E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?
Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night
E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
It stays the same
It increases
It decreases
It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct
E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
Detector noise
Induction motor noise
Receiver front-end noise
Atmospheric noise
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
An electrical-sparking signal
A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor
E6A08: What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
Corner frequency
Alpha rejection frequency
Beta cutoff frequency
Alpha cutoff frequency
E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
It provides D1 with current
E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?
The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp
The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply
E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
Pierce and Zener
Colpitts and Hartley
Armstrong and deForest
Negative feedback and balanced feedback
E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
2.14
0.214
0.47
47
E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
It includes built-in error-correction features
It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?
0.707:1
2:1
1.414:1
4:1
E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?
A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
A type of ground-plane antenna
A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
A dipole configured to provide forward gain
E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB
E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
4
3
1
7
E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency
E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the generator
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles
E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?
It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
