Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
Mica
Zinc oxide
Beryllium Oxide
Uranium Hexaflouride
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below
E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?
70 cm
70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
70 cm and 33 cm
33 cm and 13 cm
E1E08: To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
Employees of the VE
Friends of the VE
Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
All of these choices are correct
E1F08: Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
Communications that have a religious content
Communications in a language other than English
E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
FM and CW
SSB and SSTV
PSK and Packet
All of these choices are correct
E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
A special IF converter
A special front end limiter
A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
No other hardware is needed
E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?
Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
31 Hz
316 Hz
550 Hz
2.16 kHz
E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz
E3B07: Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
High D layer absorption
Meteor scatter
Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
Receipt of a signal by more than one path
E3C08: What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?
Oblique-angle ray
Pedersen ray
Ordinary ray
Heaviside ray
E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer
E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm
E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C15: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts
E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
1
2
3
6
E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop
E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
2
4
5
6
E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied
A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride
E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor
E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
Tune the stage for maximum SWR
Tune both the input and output for maximum power
Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
Use a phase inverter in the output filter
E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?
Greater harmonic suppression
Higher efficiency
Lower losses
Greater transformation range
E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
It has a ramp voltage as its output
It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?
Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?
An echo caused by a long time delay
A reduction in high frequency response
Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?
It generates FM sidebands
It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization
E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
E8B10: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?
Frequency shift keying
A diversity combiner
Frequency division multiplexing
Pulse compression
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D16: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
120V AC
170V AC
240V AC
300V AC
E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna
E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?
The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
It causes increased SWR
It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
It reduces low-angle radiation
It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency
E9E12: What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
20 meters
2.3 meters
3.5 meters
0.2 meters
E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis
E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
It has a bidirectional pattern
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands
