Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas
E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session
E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
440 - 450 MHz
53 - 54 MHz
222 - 223 MHz
420 - 430 MHz
E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
PAL
DRM
Scottie
NTSC
E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?
Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
Digipeating
Store-and-forward
Multi-satellite relaying
Node hopping
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night
E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region
E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input
E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
13.845 MHz
14.755 MHz
14.445 MHz
15.210 MHz
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E07: How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?
Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R
E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5C01: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
70.7 Watts
100 Watts
141.4 Watts
200 Watts
E6A14: How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?
They are both low impedance
An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
They are both high impedance
E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current
E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor
E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7B20: What is a parametric amplifier?
A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector
A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification
A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain
An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise
E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
A Butterworth filter
An active LC filter
A passive op-amp filter
A Chebyshev filter
E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
It has a ramp voltage as its output
It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?
Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency
E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?
Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
E7H15: Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?
Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage
E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
The standing-wave ratio
Distance from the transmitter
Soil conductivity
Take-off angle
E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation
E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
4
3
1
7
E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?
Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency
E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?
The gamma match
The delta match
The omega match
The stub match
E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the generator
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
