Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%
E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?
The exact upper band edge
300 Hz below the upper band edge
1 kHz below the upper band edge
3 kHz below the upper band edge
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct
E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?
A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
Digipeating
Store-and-forward
Multi-satellite relaying
Node hopping
E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
Winlink
RTTY
PSK31
MFSK
E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region
E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
Fewer components in the receiver
Reduced drift
Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
Improved receiver noise figure
E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
Too little gain
Lack of neutralization
Nonlinear circuits or devices
Positive feedback
E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?
Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct
E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
38.1 kHz
76.2 kHz
1.332 kHz
2.665 kHz
E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.414
0.866
0.5
1.73
E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
The change in collector current with respect to base current
The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
The switching speed of the transistor
E6B11: What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
Forward DC bias current
A sub-harmonic pump signal
Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
The heater voltage
The anode voltage
The operating temperature
The operating frequency
E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
E6F07: What is a solid state relay?
A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
A passive delay line
E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer
E7B10: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
Load resistors
Fixed bias
Self bias
Feedback
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
It has a ramp voltage as its output
It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?
Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method
E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers together
E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
Pierce and Zener
Colpitts and Hartley
Armstrong and deForest
Negative feedback and balanced feedback
E8A04: What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage
The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum
E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?
240 volts
120 volts
340 volts
170 volts
E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
Transmission-line length
Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
Constant feed point impedance
Sunspot activity and time of day
E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?
Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees
E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat
E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?
Characteristic impedance
Reflection coefficient
Velocity factor
Dielectric constant
E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
10 meters
6.9 meters
24 meters
50 meters
E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
Voltage circles and current arcs
Resistance circles and reactance arcs
Voltage lines and current chords
Resistance lines and reactance chords
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
