Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
All of these choices are correct

E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5
2
4
3

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?

Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of data symbols transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per minute
The number of words transmitted per minute

E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

48 baud
110 baud
300 baud
1200 baud

E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?

Equipment with very wide bandwidth
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
6 meters to 2 meters

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip
D-region skip
Downward bending due to aurora refraction
Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR
Q
Time
Frequency

E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz

E4C04: What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?

The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise

E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?

Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
All of these choices are correct

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

10.1 MHz
63.2 MHz
10.1 kHz
63.2 kHz

E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant

E5C22: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?

40 + j31,400
40 - j31,400
31,400 + j40
31,400 - j40

E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

In the same direction as the current
In a direction opposite to the current
In all directions; omnidirectional
In a direction determined by the left-hand rule

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage
Excessive junction temperature
Insufficient forward voltage
Charge carrier depletion

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption

E6D15: What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?

They consume less power
They can display changes instantly
They are visible in all light conditions
They can be easily interchanged with other display devices

E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor

E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Monostable multivibrator
J-K flip-flop
T flip-flop
Astable multivibrator

E7B15: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Neutralization
Select transistors with high beta
Use a resistor in series with the emitter
All of these choices are correct

E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct

E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated

E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers together

E7G08: How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

It increases linearly with increasing frequency
It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
It does not vary with frequency

E7H18: What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?

Phase noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000
3
2000
1/3

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

Radiation resistance plus space impedance
Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees

E9D15: Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?

A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground
An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke

E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits
Reduced losses per unit of length
Higher velocity factor
All of these choices are correct

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis

E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power