Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

1 mile
3 miles
10 miles
30 miles

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

30
60
90
120

E2C01: Which of the following is true about contest operating?

Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

Forward Error Correction
First Error Correction
Fatal Error Correction
Final Error Correction

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?

Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C08: What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?

Oblique-angle ray
Pedersen ray
Ordinary ray
Heaviside ray

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Amplitude
Duration
SWR
Q

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts

E6A14: How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

They are both low impedance
An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
They are both high impedance

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage
Excessive junction temperature
Insufficient forward voltage
Charge carrier depletion

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power
The effective payback period
The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
The relative fraction of light that is converted to current

E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?

A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter

E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output
It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage

E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency

E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?

It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency

E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

An echo caused by a long time delay
A reduction in high frequency response
Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal

E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave

E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

2.14
0.214
0.47
47

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage

E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna

E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?

The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss

E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters
20 meters
10 meters
71 meters

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts