Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?
Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct
E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
6 meters and 2 meters
6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
2 meters and 1.25 meters
2 meters
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
440 - 450 MHz
53 - 54 MHz
222 - 223 MHz
420 - 430 MHz
E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz
E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
PAL
DRM
Scottie
NTSC
E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
To upload operational software for the transponder
To delay download of telemetry between satellites
To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
To relay messages between satellites
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B07: Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
High D layer absorption
Meteor scatter
Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
Receipt of a signal by more than one path
E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?
South
North
East
West
E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
SWR
Q
Time
Frequency
E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated
E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
Ground-plane construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction
E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes
E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?
Monostable multivibrator
J-K flip-flop
T flip-flop
Astable multivibrator
E7B15: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
Neutralization
Select transistors with high beta
Use a resistor in series with the emitter
All of these choices are correct
E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?
Pi-L
Cascode
Omega
Pi
E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1
E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?
A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network
E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
Pierce and Zener
Colpitts and Hartley
Armstrong and deForest
Negative feedback and balanced feedback
E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
Human speech
Video signals
Data
All of these choices are correct
E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?
Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
Easily copied by ear if necessary
Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?
It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks
E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
E9B10: What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
Omnidirectional
A cardioid
A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?
It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat
E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
E9F07: How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
Lower loss
Higher SWR
Smaller reflection coefficient
Lower velocity factor
E9G08: What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?
159 watts
252 watts
632 watts
63.2 watts
