Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?

By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters
6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
2 meters and 1.25 meters
2 meters

E1E06: Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

The VEC coordinating the session
The FCC
Each administering VE
The VE session manager

E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?

To provide for experimental amateur communications
To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
To provide additional spectrum for personal use
To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO

E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Specific tone frequencies
Elapsed time
Specific tone amplitudes
A two-tone signal

E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz

E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?

Long-path
Sporadic-E
Transequatorial
Auroral

E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct

E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds

E5C06: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.414
0.866
0.5
1.73

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons

E6B12: What is one common use for PIN diodes?

As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF switch
As a high voltage rectifier

E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct

E6D16: What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?

Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology

E6E12: What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?

An automatic notch filter
A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
A special filter that emphasizes image responses
A filter that removes impulse noise

E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network
A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
To balance the low-voltage filament windings
To improve output voltage regulation
To boost the amount of output current

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G04: Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?

Electrolytic
Disc ceramic
Polystyrene
Paper

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands
It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal

E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts

E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Elevation
Azimuth
Radiation resistance
Polarization

E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node

E9E04: What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics
To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions

E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power