E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B04: What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society

A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Minimum passing score of 70%

Minimum passing score of 80%

Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

The location of the ground control station

The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60

60 or 100

180 or 360

E2C12: What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Switch to a higher frequency HF band

Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass

Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR

802.11

AMTOR

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves

In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady

At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A09: Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?

Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output

Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter

All of these choices are correct

E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

All of these choices are correct

E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency

The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver

The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver

A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A12: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

436.6 kHz

218.3 kHz

15.7 kHz

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts

1000 watts

1600 watts

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage

To protect the substrate from excessive voltages

To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts

1.5 volts

13.6 volts

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on

The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light

The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions

E6E02: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter

The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter

E6F01: What is photoconductivity?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy

The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state

It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

E7B18: Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

High power gain

High filament voltage

Low bandwidth

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D02: What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current

It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator

It gives a ramp voltage at its output

E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

A de-emphasis network

A heterodyne suppressor

An audio prescaler

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope

To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop

To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28

7

0.07

E7H14: What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator

An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator

An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input

E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?

A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps

A running display of alpha-numeric characters

None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?

Independent sideband

Regenerative detection

Exponential addition

E8D10: What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power?

An SWR meter reading in the forward direction

A modulation meter

An average reading wattmeter

E9A11: Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

Isolate the coax shield from ground

Shorten the radiating element

Reduce the diameter of the radiating element

E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Graphical analysis

Mutual impedance analysis

Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

To swamp out harmonics

To maximize losses

To minimize the Q

E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Characteristic impedance

Velocity factor

Dielectric constant

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency

SWR

Points with constant resistance

E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio

It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity

It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity