E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation

Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings

Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted

Operation is restricted to LSB

All of these choices are correct

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link

The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs

A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites

A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E06: Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

The VEC coordinating the session

The FCC

The VE session manager

E1F08: Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine

Communications that have a religious content

Communications in a language other than English

E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Because of ionospheric absorption

Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude

Because of the Doppler Effect

E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

A special IF converter

A special front end limiter

A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital

APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points

All of these choices are correct

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

First Error Correction

Fatal Error Correction

Final Error Correction

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning

Noon

Late at night

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South

East

West

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B12: What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test

When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit

When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity

The multiplex distortion stability

The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders

Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

An electrical-sparking signal

A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency

Harmonics of the AC power line frequency

E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

1.89 kHz

94.5 kHz

9.45 kHz

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C09: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Reactive component

The sum of the reactive and resistive components

The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D01: What is the result of skin effect?

As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface

Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance

Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2

5

6

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

1

3

4

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic

Tubular

Radar

E6E02: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal

The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter

The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter

E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Protons

Photons

Holes

E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Monostable multivibrator

J-K flip-flop

T flip-flop

E7B15: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?

Neutralization

Select transistors with high beta

All of these choices are correct

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Pi-L

Cascode

Omega

E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?

To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor

To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off

To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse

It adds two decimal numbers together

E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

An echo caused by a long time delay

A reduction in high frequency response

Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies

E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Pierce and Zener

Armstrong and deForest

Negative feedback and balanced feedback

E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

Regular sinusoidal oscillations

A series of tones that vary between two frequencies

A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

9.6 kHz

4.8 kHz

5.76 kHz

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

RMS voltage

Average voltage

DC voltage

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison

National Electrical Code

Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Omnidirectional

A cardioid

A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

72 ohms

50 ohms

450 ohms

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match

The delta match

The omega match

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70

0.30

0.10

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Free-space radiation directivity chart

Elevation angle radiation pattern chart

Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It is non-rotatable

It receives equally well in all directions

It is practical for use only on VHF bands