E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields

Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location

E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted

Operation is restricted to LSB

All of these choices are correct

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz

E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

18.110 - 18.168 MHz

24.940 - 24.990 MHz

10.100 - 10.150 MHz

E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

Two-way single channel transmissions of data

One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

E1F08: Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine

Communications that have a religious content

Communications in a language other than English

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite

The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth

Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60

60 or 100

180 or 360

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?

144.20 MHz

145.02 MHz

146.52 MHz

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The F1 layer

The F2 layer

The D layer

E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station

When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations

When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

D-region absorption

Faraday rotation

Ground wave

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer

A Q meter

An ohmmeter

E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna

Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

157.8 Hz

315.6 Hz

23.67 kHz

E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

It has to be a direct current circuit

It contains resistance and capacitive reactance

It contains resistance and inductive reactance

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery

A transformer

An inductor

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

Any FET without a channel

Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

1

3

4

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic

Tubular

Radar

E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel

Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series

Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"

It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7B20: What is a parametric amplifier?

A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector

A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain

An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides brute force filtering of the output

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It clips the peaks of the ripple

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements

It does not require an expensive high-precision time base

It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter

E7G08: How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

It increases linearly with increasing frequency

It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback

Pierce, Fenner and Beane

Taft, Hartley and Pierce

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave

A square wave

A sine wave

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband

AMTOR

Time-domain frequency modulation

E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?

123 volts

96 volts

55 volts

E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

The specific impedance of the antenna

The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

36 dB

24 dB

14 dB

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

Omnidirectional

E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?

So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals

So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation

To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite

E9E06: 3-element Yagi?

Pi network

Pi-L network

Parallel-resonant tank

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70

0.30

0.10

E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Antenna-length circles

Coaxial-length circles

Radiation-pattern circles

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts