E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules

Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?

The person may be fined or imprisoned

The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant

All these choices are correct

E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

440 - 450 MHz

53 - 54 MHz

222 - 223 MHz

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

The location of the ground control station

The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E2B17: What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?

600 Hz

2 MHz

6 MHz

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

First Error Correction

Fatal Error Correction

Final Error Correction

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz

430.100 - 431.100 MHz

431.100 - 431.200 MHz

E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station

When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations

When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction

The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction

The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

E4A09: Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?

Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output

Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter

All of these choices are correct

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input

Low reluctance input

Low impedance input

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz

4.2 kHz

4.8 kHz

E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver

A Class C final amplifier

A Class D final amplifier

E4E07: How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer

By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope

By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

63.2 MHz

10.1 kHz

63.2 kHz

E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one

One exponential period

A time factor of one

E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?

5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.73

0.5

0.577

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2

5

6

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability

Lower distortion

Immune to damage from static discharge

E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?

Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability

Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value

Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity

E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

MMICs require no operating bias

Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E6F01: What is photoconductivity?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy

The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

E7B20: What is a parametric amplifier?

A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector

A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain

An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise

E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?

An adaptive filter

A notch filter

An elliptical filter

E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides brute force filtering of the output

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It clips the peaks of the ripple

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging

Prescaling

D/A conversion

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged

Op-amps are fixed at one frequency

Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements

E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?

An oscillator based on the argon gas diode

A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle

A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?

A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps

A running display of alpha-numeric characters

None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope

E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

60

0.167

0.6

E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

0.1 Hz

0.3 kHz

1.0 kHz

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

RMS voltage

Average power

Resting voltage

E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

The specific impedance of the antenna

The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match

Hairpin match

All of these choices are correct

E9F14: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Very high impedance

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the output impedance of the generator

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Free-space radiation directivity chart

Elevation angle radiation pattern chart

Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure

By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions