Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?

12 meter band
17 meter band
30 meter band
60 meter band

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

1 mile
3 miles
10 miles
30 miles

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
All HF bands

E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power

E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO

E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

30
60
90
120

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet

E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Hellschreiber
PACTOR
RTTY
AMTOR

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters

E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?

In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region

E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy
Time base accuracy
Decade divider accuracy
Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
It reduces receiver sensitivity
It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals

E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds

E5C09: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Resistive component
Reactive component
The sum of the reactive and resistive components
The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.73
0.5
0.866
0.577

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1
5
6
7

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts
1.5 volts
5 volts
13.6 volts

E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power
The effective payback period
The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
The relative fraction of light that is converted to current

E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Monostable multivibrator
J-K flip-flop
T flip-flop
Astable multivibrator

E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct

E7C01: How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage

E7E13: Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
The quadrature method

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high

E7H18: What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?

Phase noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise

E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

Regular sinusoidal oscillations
Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication

E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage

E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?

The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees
50 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees

E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match

E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both