Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
Only General class or higher amateur licenses
An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C08: What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30 seconds
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz

E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
To relay calls to and from a DX station

E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Digipeating
Store-and-forward
Multi-satellite relaying
Node hopping

E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

48 baud
110 baud
300 baud
1200 baud

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
6 meters to 2 meters

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately 15% of the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

The inductance to capacitance ratio
The frequency shift
The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
It reduces receiver sensitivity
It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct

E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?

38.1 kHz
76.2 kHz
1.332 kHz
2.665 kHz

E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one

E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?

31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D01: What is the result of skin effect?

As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?

As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption

E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied
A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

E6E02: Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
The entire cycle
Less than 180 degrees

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network
A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider

E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
For smoothing power-supply output
As an audio filter in a receiver

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands
It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal
The characteristics of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The amplifier gain

E8B03: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

3
0.3
3000
1000

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D13: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts
170 volts
120 volts
340 volts

E9A10: How is antenna efficiency calculated?

(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?

The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees

E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire

E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

20 meters
2.3 meters
3.5 meters
0.2 meters

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle