Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C07: What is meant by local control?
Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
Automatically manipulating local station controls
Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct
E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
5
2
4
3
E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
435-438 MHz
144-146 MHz
50.0-50.2 MHz
29.5 to 29.7 MHz
E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
A special IF converter
A special front end limiter
A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
No other hardware is needed
E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct
E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
Winlink
RTTY
PSK31
MFSK
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?
Variability of signal strength with beam heading
Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
Fewer components in the receiver
Reduced drift
Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
Improved receiver noise figure
E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5C22: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
40 + j31,400
40 - j31,400
31,400 + j40
31,400 - j40
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A01: In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
In high-current rectifier circuits
In high-power audio circuits
At microwave frequencies
At very low frequency RF circuits
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
It can be used to make an audio delay line
It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
It samples and stores analog signals
E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms
E6F10: What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
Selenium
Silicon
Cadmium Sulfide
Copper oxide
E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7B15: What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
Neutralization
Select transistors with high beta
Use a resistor in series with the emitter
All of these choices are correct
E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
To provide line voltage stabilization
To provide a voltage reference
Peak clipping
Hum filtering
E7E04: What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?
By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G09: What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input?
0.23 volts
2.3 volts
-0.23 volts
-2.3 volts
E7H12: Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
Phase splitter
Hex inverter
Chroma demodulator
Phase accumulator
E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
Regular sinusoidal oscillations
Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
A signal that contains three or more discrete tones
E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage
E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna
E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB
E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB
E9D03: How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
It increases geometrically
It increases arithmetically
It is essentially unaffected
It decreases
E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?
An SWR less than 1:1
A reflection coefficient greater than 1
A dielectric constant greater than 1
An SWR greater than 1:1
E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?
159 watts
252 watts
632 watts
63.2 watts
