Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A08: What does SAR measure?
Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct
E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?
.5
1.0
2.0
3.0
E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct
E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
Any licensed amateur operator
Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only Amateur Extra Class operators
E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO
E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E12: Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
Winlink
RTTY
PSK31
MFSK
E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
Equipment with very wide bandwidth
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct
E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct
E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
Input attenuator accuracy
Time base accuracy
Decade divider accuracy
Temperature coefficient of the logic
E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
13.845 MHz
14.755 MHz
14.445 MHz
15.210 MHz
E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?
6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees
E5D14: What is reactive power?
Wattless, nonproductive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q
E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
1
2
3
6
E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms
E6F07: What is a solid state relay?
A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
A passive delay line
E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B04: Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?
Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
To provide line voltage stabilization
To provide a voltage reference
Peak clipping
Hum filtering
E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?
Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated
E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
0.21
94
47
24
E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
Linear amplification
PSK31 data transmission
Multiphase power transmission
Digital data transmission
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
The standing-wave ratio
Distance from the transmitter
Soil conductivity
Take-off angle
E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?
Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?
Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
Bidirectional; four-sides, each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;
Four-sides, each of a different physical length
E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?
In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite
E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
E9F15: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions
E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
1977 watts
78.7 watts
420 watts
286 watts
