Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B17: What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?

600 Hz
3 kHz
2 MHz
6 MHz

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Unnumbered Information
Disconnect
Acknowledgement
Connect

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz

E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

A large increase in background noise
A reduction in apparent signal strength
The desired signal can no longer be heard
The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal

E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads

E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R

E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?

173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms

E5D09: What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1
5
6
7

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts
1.5 volts
5 volts
13.6 volts

E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes unstable

E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer

E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Tune the stage for maximum SWR
Tune both the input and output for maximum power
Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

Pi-L
Cascode
Omega
Pi

E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

To provide line voltage stabilization
To provide a voltage reference
Peak clipping
Hum filtering

E7E12: What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

An FM generator circuit
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
An automatic band-switching circuit
A circuit for detecting FM signals

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28
14
7
0.07

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands
It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
It makes it possible for a VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

2.5 to 1
25 to 1
1 to 1
100 to 1

E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index

E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
Easily copied by ear if necessary
Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts

E9A03: Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?

Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic antenna

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?

In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match
The delta match
The omega match
The stub match

E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts