Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
6 meters and 2 meters
6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
2 meters and 1.25 meters
2 meters
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360
E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
Digipeating
Store-and-forward
Multi-satellite relaying
Node hopping
E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading
E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
E-region skip
D-region skip
Downward bending due to aurora refraction
Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer
E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input
E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
E4D05: What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
E5A14: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
44.72 MHz
22.36 MHz
3.56 MHz
1.78 MHz
E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
E5C23: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
Point 1
Point 3
Point 5
Point 8
E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
Coulomb
Joule
Watt
Volt
E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?
N-type
P-type
Bipolar
Insulated gate
E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes
E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7B03: Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?
A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity
E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?
It is a low-pass filter
It is a band-pass filter
It is a high-pass filter
It is a notch filter
E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1
E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?
Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
Incoming RF is mixed to "baseband" for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers
E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms
E7H14: What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
0.1 Hz
0.3 kHz
0.5 kHz
1.0 kHz
E8D07: What is an electromagnetic wave?
Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?
The ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present
E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
The front-to-back ratio increases
The front-to-back ratio decreases
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced
E9C06: What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss
E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
To swamp out harmonics
To maximize losses
To minimize losses
To minimize the Q
E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
The gamma match
The delta match
The epsilon match
The stub match
E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?
15 meters
20 meters
10 meters
71 meters
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts
