Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A02: When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?
Make sure signals from your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE limits
You need only evaluate exposure levels on your own property
Advise your neighbors of the results of your tests
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW
E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
FM and CW
SSB and SSTV
PSK and Packet
All of these choices are correct
E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
E2C12: What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
Switch to a higher frequency HF band
Switch to a lower frequency HF band
Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A04: What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
Equipment with very wide bandwidth
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
By approximately 15% of the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance
E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct
E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
100 watts
125 watts
25 watts
75 watts
E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
Fewer components in the receiver
Reduced drift
Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
Improved receiver noise figure
E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?
Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct
E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
The highest frequency that will pass current
The lowest frequency that will pass current
The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D09: What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?
It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
Free neutrons
Free protons
Holes
Free electrons
E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material
E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
Low power consumption
Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
High speed operation
More efficient arithmetic operations
E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability
Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity
E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
The output RF power divided by the input dc power
The effective payback period
The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer
E7B09: Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?
The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
0.21
94
47
24
E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
It must have at least two stages
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal
E8A04: What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage
The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C06: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
0.1 Hz
0.3 kHz
0.5 kHz
1.0 kHz
E8D03: What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
Peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average power
Resting voltage
E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB
E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB
E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?
Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB
E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?
It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
