E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?

The amateur station must cease operation

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz

The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations

Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands

40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands

All HF bands

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations

A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope

An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

30

60

1080

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

FSK441

PACTOR III

Olivia

E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

31 Hz

550 Hz

2.16 kHz

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The F1 layer

The F2 layer

The D layer

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy

Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery

CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Duration

SWR

Q

E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

146.52 Hz

10 Hz

146.52 kHz

E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?

Fewer components in the receiver

Reduced drift

Improved receiver noise figure

E4D05: What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz

146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz

173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz

E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver

The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum

The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Capacitance

Conductance

Resistance

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?

6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees

5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space

A charged capacitor

A battery

E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?

2

4

5

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency

A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver

A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance

Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It decreases

It stays the same

It becomes unstable

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B19: What is a klystron?

A high speed multivibrator

An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube

An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability

E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple

Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners

Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Switching voltage regulator

Grounded emitter amplifier

Emitter follower

E7E01: Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier

A reactance modulator on the final amplifier

A balanced modulator on the oscillator

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The speed of the logic devices used

Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply

Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms

1000 ohms

Very low

E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?

An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer

A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field

A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube

E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Human speech

Video signals

Data

E8B03: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

0.3

3000

1000

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D10: What type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power?

An SWR meter reading in the forward direction

A modulation meter

An average reading wattmeter

E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line

The specific impedance of the antenna

The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

It causes increased SWR

It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Characteristic impedance

Velocity factor

Dielectric constant

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?

2.70

0.30

0.10

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position

A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map

A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source