Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz
E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?
A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
A sentence of up to one year in prison
All of these choices are correct
E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
30
60
525
1080
E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm
E2D02: What is the definition of baud?
The number of data symbols transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per minute
The number of words transmitted per minute
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?
CW
SSB
FM
RTTY
E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
Amplitude
Duration
SWR
Q
E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
The transmitter is not properly neutralized
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
There is more power going into the antenna
E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination
E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
Signals which are constant at all IF levels
Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
Signals which appear at one IF but not another
Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
E5D01: What is the result of skin effect?
As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
E6A01: In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
In high-current rectifier circuits
In high-power audio circuits
At microwave frequencies
At very low frequency RF circuits
E6B12: What is one common use for PIN diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF switch
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption
E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability
Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity
E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
50 ohms
300 ohms
450 ohms
10 ohms
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic
E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
E7D07: What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It bypasses hum around D1
It is a brute force filter for the output
To self-resonate at the hum frequency
To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
0.21
94
47
24
E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
Through a quartz crystal
E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
Human speech
Video signals
Data
All of these choices are correct
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB
E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?
12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB
E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
4
3
1
7
E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?
It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
It has high gain
It minimizes harmonic radiation
It may be used for multiband operation
E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?
The gamma match
The delta match
The omega match
The stub match
E9F09: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
10 meters
6.9 meters
24 meters
50 meters
E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
