Ham Extra License Practice Quiz

• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct
E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
Only General class or higher amateur licenses
An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?

70 cm
70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
70 cm and 33 cm
33 cm and 13 cm
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B01: How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

30
60
90
120
E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR
E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line
E3C13: What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?

The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct
E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted
E4E06: What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

Solar radio frequency emissions
Thunderstorms
Geomagnetic storms
Meteor showers
E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Resonance
Capacitance
Conductance
Resistance
E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?

400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

In the same direction as the current
In a direction opposite to the current
In all directions; omnidirectional
In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2
4
5
6
E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1
5
6
7
E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Low power consumption
Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
High speed operation
More efficient arithmetic operations
E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
A display using a crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is applied
A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
E6F08: Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

Monostable multivibrator
J-K flip-flop
T flip-flop
Astable multivibrator
E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Tune the stage for maximum SWR
Tune both the input and output for maximum power
Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
Use a phase inverter in the output filter
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
E7G09: What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input?

0.23 volts
2.3 volts
-0.23 volts
-2.3 volts
E7H06: Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

Pierce and Zener
Colpitts and Hartley
Armstrong and deForest
Negative feedback and balanced feedback
E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?

A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps
A series of pulses with varying patterns
A running display of alpha-numeric characters
None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope
E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
Easily copied by ear if necessary
Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
E8D08: Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio
Distance from the transmitter
Soil conductivity
Take-off angle
E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation
E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional
E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat
E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
E9F07: How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

Lower loss
Higher SWR
Smaller reflection coefficient
Lower velocity factor
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls