Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%
E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
Discontinue forwarding all messages
E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
At the lowest frequency of the channel
At the center frequency of the channel
At the highest frequency of the channel
On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F08: Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
Communications that have a religious content
Communications in a language other than English
E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
30
60
525
1080
E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
E2D02: What is the definition of baud?
The number of data symbols transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per minute
The number of words transmitted per minute
E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct
E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth
E4D02: Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?
Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct
E5A15: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
3.76 MHz
1.78 MHz
11.18 MHz
22.36 MHz
E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
E5C22: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
40 + j31,400
40 - j31,400
31,400 + j40
31,400 - j40
E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?
704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW
E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
The change in collector current with respect to base current
The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
The switching speed of the transistor
E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier
E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
2
3
4
6
E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns
E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?
The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
E7B20: What is a parametric amplifier?
A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector
A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification
A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain
An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise
E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
E7D10: What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple
E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?
A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network
E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q
E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
E8A08: What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?
Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
Easily copied by ear if necessary
Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A01: Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?
A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity
A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas
A theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio
They are the same
The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna
E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
Omnidirectional
A cardioid
A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
The driven element reactance must be capacitive
The driven element reactance must be inductive
The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
E9F10: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?
A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle
