Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
The location is near an area of political conflict
The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct
E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
Which sideband to use
E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360
E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS
E2E02: What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
Forward Error Correction
First Error Correction
Fatal Error Correction
Final Error Correction
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct
E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer
E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth
E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
A large increase in background noise
A reduction in apparent signal strength
The desired signal can no longer be heard
The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R
E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.414
0.866
0.5
1.73
E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
The change of collector current with respect to base current
The change of base current with respect to collector current
The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
The change of collector current with respect to gate current
E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
1
5
6
7
E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
2
4
5
6
E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
It can be used to make an audio delay line
It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
It samples and stores analog signals
E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A05: Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?
Monostable multivibrator
J-K flip-flop
T flip-flop
Astable multivibrator
E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
Push-push
Push-pull
Class C
Class AB
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage
E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?
Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated
E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?
To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal
E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor
E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
Human speech
Video signals
Data
All of these choices are correct
E8B12: What is digital time division multiplexing?
Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?
Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
Easily copied by ear if necessary
Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
E8D16: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
120V AC
170V AC
240V AC
300V AC
E9A11: Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?
Install a good radial system
Isolate the coax shield from ground
Shorten the radiating element
Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
The front-to-back ratio increases
The front-to-back ratio decreases
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced
E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
Omnidirectional
A cardioid
A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?
Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB
E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct
E9F15: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation
E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
It has a bidirectional pattern
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands
