Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?

.5
1.0
2.0
3.0

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link

E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Return the application document to the examinee
Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
Destroy the application form

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south

E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

3 KHz
10 KHz
15 KHz
20 KHz

E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?

144.39 MHz
144.20 MHz
145.02 MHz
146.52 MHz

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles

E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?

Variability of signal strength with beam heading
Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer

E4B13: How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?

A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

13.845 MHz
14.755 MHz
14.445 MHz
15.210 MHz

E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R

E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one

E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?

Coulomb
Joule
Watt
Volt

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
Any FET without a channel
Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption

E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Thermal impedance
Resistance
Reactivity
Permeability

E6E10: What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor

E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?

Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic

E7B08: How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

By increasing the driving power
By reducing the driving power
By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input

E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Greater harmonic suppression
Higher efficiency
Lower losses
Greater transformation range

E7D07: What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It bypasses hum around D1
It is a brute force filter for the output
To self-resonate at the hum frequency
To provide fixed DC bias for Q1

E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?

By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements
It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter

E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

1
0.03
38
76

E7H14: What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB

E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?

The gain increases
The SWR decreases
The front-to-back ratio increases
The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees

E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?

In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct

E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H11: What characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?

A very sharp peak
A very sharp single null
Broad band response
High-radiation angle