Ham Extra License Practice Quiz

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E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
All of these choices are correct
E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

1 mile
3 miles
10 miles
30 miles
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator
Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only Amateur Extra Class operators
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
E2C12: What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Switch to a higher frequency HF band
Switch to a lower frequency HF band
Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
E2D02: What is the definition of baud?

The number of data symbols transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per second
The number of characters transmitted per minute
The number of words transmitted per minute
E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

Selective fading has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately 15% of the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance
E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input
E4C12: What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

Output-offset overshoot
Filter ringing
Thermal-noise distortion
Undesired signals may be heard
E4D09: What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

To store often-used frequencies
To provide a range of AGC time constants
To increase rejection of unwanted signals
To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?

38.1 kHz
76.2 kHz
1.332 kHz
2.665 kHz
E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one
E5C14: What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

Maidenhead grid
Faraday grid
Elliptical coordinates
Polar coordinates
E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?

704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW
E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2
4
5
6
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Low power consumption
Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
High speed operation
More efficient arithmetic operations
E6D09: What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?

Electrolytic capacitors
Butterworth filters
Ferrite beads
Steel-core toroids
E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
E7B18: Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

High power gain
High filament voltage
Low input impedance
Low bandwidth
E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?

An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
It provides D1 with current
E7E04: What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers together
E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
For smoothing power-supply output
As an audio filter in a receiver
E7H14: What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
E8A09: What type of waveform is produced by human speech?

Sinusoidal
Logarithmic
Irregular
Trapezoidal
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts
E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Transmission-line length
Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
Constant feed point impedance
Sunspot activity and time of day
E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts
Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
Antenna gain
All of these choices are correct
E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees
E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB
E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Characteristic impedance
Reflection coefficient
Velocity factor
Dielectric constant
E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio
E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire