Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


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E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
All of these choices are correct

E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

The location is near an area of political conflict
The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast

E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct

E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

When the total money involved does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
When transmitting international third-party communications
When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array

E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

A special IF converter
A special front end limiter
A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
No other hardware is needed

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?

Long-path
Sporadic-E
Transequatorial
Auroral

E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

It stays the same
It increases
It decreases
It peaks at roughly 14 MHz

E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct

E5A15: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

3.76 MHz
1.78 MHz
11.18 MHz
22.36 MHz

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds

E5C03: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space
Electric current
A charged capacitor
A battery

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Varactor diode
Tunnel diode
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener diode

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D09: What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?

Electrolytic capacitors
Butterworth filters
Ferrite beads
Steel-core toroids

E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?

A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor

E7A11: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?

Reverse Logic
Assertive Logic
Negative logic
Positive Logic

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier

E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

A Butterworth filter
An active LC filter
A passive op-amp filter
A Chebyshev filter

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply
To balance the low-voltage filament windings
To improve output voltage regulation
To boost the amount of output current

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
Incoming RF is mixed to "baseband" for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G09: What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input?

0.23 volts
2.3 volts
-0.23 volts
-2.3 volts

E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?

An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect

E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

By using a grid dip meter
By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
By using an absorption wavemeter
By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance

E9H05: What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

It has a bidirectional pattern
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands