E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body

Signal Amplification Rating

The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge

300 Hz above the lower band edge

1 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel

At the highest frequency of the channel

On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location

A station controlled by someone other than the licensee

A station operating under automatic control

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F07: When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

When the total money involved does not exceed $25

When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency

When transmitting international third-party communications

E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east

From east to west

From north to south

E2B14: What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

Tone amplitude

Sync amplitude

Sync frequency

E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

To relay calls to and from a DX station

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

31 Hz

550 Hz

2.16 kHz

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz

430.100 - 431.100 MHz

431.100 - 431.200 MHz

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves

In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady

At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately twice the distance

By approximately one-half the distance

By approximately four times the distance

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

0.1 MHz

1.4652 Hz

1.4652 kHz

E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

The meter display sensitivity

The multiplex distortion stability

The maximum detectable spectrum

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver

A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to inductive reactance

Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B07: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current

14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C18: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?

6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees

5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees

E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.73

0.5

0.577

E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

P-type

Bipolar

Insulated gate

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1

2

3

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic

Tubular

Radar

E6E12: What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?

An automatic notch filter

A special filter that emphasizes image responses

A filter that removes impulse noise

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B11: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

Fixed bias

Emitter bypass

Output load resistor

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter

A Pi-network filter

An all-pass filter

E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications

To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage

To allow for remote control of the power supply

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency

The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies

1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The speed of the logic devices used

Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply

Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms

1000 ohms

Very low

E7H12: Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Phase splitter

Hex inverter

Chroma demodulator

E8A05: What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

By using a grid dip meter

By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter

By using an absorption wavemeter

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second

The amplitude of the pulses

The duration of the pulses

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII

AX.25

Baudot

E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts

120 volts

170 volts

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio

Distance from the transmitter

Take-off angle

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Omnidirectional

A cardioid

A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

72 ohms

50 ohms

450 ohms

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F10: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A capacitive reactance

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Resistance and voltage

Reactance and voltage

Voltage and impedance

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals