E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

Only General class or higher amateur licenses

An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification

A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient

Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations

Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?

Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

Two-way single channel transmissions of data

One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline

A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline

A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

30

60

1080

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR

Hellschreiber

APRS

E2E08: Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

Hellschreiber

RTTY

AMTOR

E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?

A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises

The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles

2500 miles

7500 miles

E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

D-region absorption

Faraday rotation

Ground wave

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer

A Q meter

An ohmmeter

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy

Decade divider accuracy

Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A narrow IF filter

A notch filter

A properly adjusted product detector

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E04: How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead

By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads

By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead

E5A04: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?

Approximately equal to inductive reactance

Low, as compared to the circuit resistance

Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

It has to be a direct current circuit

It contains resistance and capacitive reactance

It contains resistance and inductive reactance

E5D05: Which of the following creates a magnetic field?

Potential differences between two points in space

A charged capacitor

A battery

E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Holes

Free protons

Free neutrons

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability

Lower distortion

Immune to damage from static discharge

E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

2 turns

4 turns

229 turns

E6E12: What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?

An automatic notch filter

A special filter that emphasizes image responses

A filter that removes impulse noise

E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion

A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals

A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate

An "OR" gate

A clock

E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Tune the stage for maximum SWR

Tune both the input and output for maximum power

Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output

It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator

Phase detector

Phase comparator

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope

To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop

To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G09: What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input?

0.23 volts

2.3 volts

-0.23 volts

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands

It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator

It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Human speech

Video signals

Data

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz

Approximately 26 Hz

Approximately 104 Hz

E8D09: What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape

Waves that circle the Earth

Waves produced by a loop antenna

E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Transmission-line length

Constant feed point impedance

Sunspot activity and time of day

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees

25 degrees

30 degrees

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q

Greater structural strength

Higher losses

E9E04: What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna

To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics

To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Characteristic impedance

Surge impedance

Standing wave ratio

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts

632 watts

63.2 watts