Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A10: What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?
Polychlorinated biphenyls
Polyethylene
Polytetrafluroethylene
Polymorphic silicon
E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
E1B01: Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session
E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW
E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?
A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
The most common set of contest rules
The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?
It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct
E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
100 watts
125 watts
25 watts
75 watts
E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
174 dBm
-164 dBm
-155 dBm
-148 dBm
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated
E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
10.1 MHz
63.2 MHz
10.1 kHz
63.2 kHz
E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds
E5C02: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C03: Which of the following describes tri-state logic?
Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
Logic devices that utilize ternary math
Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?
Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic
E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A14: What is a JK flip-flop?
A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption
E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
Emitter load
Fixed bias
Collector load
Voltage regulation
E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances
E7D04: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?
A series current source
A series regulator
A shunt regulator
A shunt current source
E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?
Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator
E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop
E7G04: Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?
Electrolytic
Disc ceramic
Polystyrene
Paper
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C09: Which of these techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a conventional receiver?
Spread-spectrum
Independent sideband
Regenerative detection
Exponential addition
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
6.17 dB
9.85 dB
12.5 dB
14.15 dB
E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable
E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
Elevation
Azimuth
Radiation resistance
Polarization
E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms
E9E06: 3-element Yagi?
Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank
E9F14: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
Very high impedance
Very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions
E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
1977 watts
78.7 watts
420 watts
286 watts
