Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
All of these choices are correct
E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?
To provide for experimental amateur communications
To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
To provide additional spectrum for personal use
To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
Which sideband to use
E2B17: What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
600 Hz
3 kHz
2 MHz
6 MHz
E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?
The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
FSK441
PACTOR III
Olivia
JT65
E2E11: What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?
CW
SSB
FM
RTTY
E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?
Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter
E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input
E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
A front-end filter or pre-selector
A narrow IF filter
A notch filter
A properly adjusted product detector
E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?
The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
10.1 MHz
63.2 MHz
10.1 kHz
63.2 kHz
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D14: What is reactive power?
Wattless, nonproductive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct
E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
Thermal impedance
Resistance
Reactivity
Permeability
E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?
A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
The output RF power divided by the input dc power
The effective payback period
The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?
None
One
Two
Four
E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D04: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?
A series current source
A series regulator
A shunt regulator
A shunt current source
E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?
Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator
E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?
As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers
As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line
For smoothing power-supply output
As an audio filter in a receiver
E7H12: Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
Phase splitter
Hex inverter
Chroma demodulator
Phase accumulator
E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?
A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps
A series of pulses with varying patterns
A running display of alpha-numeric characters
None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope
E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
60
0.167
0.6
1.67
E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum
E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?
123 volts
96 volts
55 volts
48 volts
E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB
E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees
E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?
Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases by 6 dB
Gain increases by 3 dB
E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line
Use the "universal stub" matching technique
Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?
It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
