Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Mica
Zinc oxide
Beryllium Oxide
Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B04: What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?

70 cm
70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
70 cm and 33 cm
33 cm and 13 cm

E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

Minimum passing score of 70%
Minimum passing score of 74%
Minimum passing score of 80%
Minimum passing score of 77%

E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
All of these choices are correct

E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

FM and CW
SSB and SSTV
PSK and Packet
All of these choices are correct

E2B07: What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

Luminance
Chroma
Hue
Spectral Intensity

E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?

Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Unnumbered Information
Disconnect
Acknowledgement
Connect

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

It stays the same
It increases
It decreases
It peaks at roughly 14 MHz

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Amplitude
Duration
SWR
Q

E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
The transmitter is not properly neutralized
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
There is more power going into the antenna

E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

13.845 MHz
14.755 MHz
14.445 MHz
15.210 MHz

E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

A large increase in background noise
A reduction in apparent signal strength
The desired signal can no longer be heard
The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct

E5A12: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

436.6 kHz
218.3 kHz
31.4 kHz
15.7 kHz

E5B03: The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?

86.5%
63.2%
36.8%
13.5%

E5C10: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?

Resistive component
Reactive component
The sum of the reactive and resistive components
The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts

E6A17: What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source

E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?

Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability
Powdered-iron toroids generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None
One
Two
Four

E7B05: What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

Tune the stage for maximum SWR
Tune both the input and output for maximum power
Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values chosen
L networks cannot perform impedance transformation
Pi networks have fewer components
Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1

E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G07: What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

0.21
94
47
24

E7H04: How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A04: What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?

The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage
The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz
Approximately 26 Hz
Approximately 52 Hz
Approximately 104 Hz

E8D16: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

120V AC
170V AC
240V AC
300V AC

E9A09: What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases
The front-to-back ratio decreases
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced

E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency

E9E06: 3-element Yagi?

Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank

E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

20 meters
2.3 meters
3.5 meters
0.2 meters

E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance

E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power