Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1B08: What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?
The amateur station must cease operation
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
E1C07: What is meant by local control?
Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
Automatically manipulating local station controls
Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct
E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session
E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
E2A11: What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A linearly polarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
E2B12: How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm
E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS
E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum
E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading
E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?
Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
E4D09: What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
To store often-used frequencies
To provide a range of AGC time constants
To increase rejection of unwanted signals
To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated
E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"
E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms
E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?
704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW
E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
E6B05: What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
A large region of intrinsic material
E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
2
3
4
6
E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
2 turns
4 turns
43 turns
229 turns
E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
Ground-plane construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction
E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor
E7A13: What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
Emitter load
Fixed bias
Collector load
Voltage regulation
E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?
A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode
E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?
GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion
E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?
The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition
E7H10: What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the radio memories
E8A13: What is an advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same information?
Less complex circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times without error
All of these choices are correct
E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?
The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
E8D09: What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
Waves with a rotating electric field
Waves that circle the Earth
Waves produced by a loop antenna
E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
SWR vs. frequency charts
Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
Antenna gain
All of these choices are correct
E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB
E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
E9F02: Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectric materials used in the line
The center conductor resistivity
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?
A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
