E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Mica

Zinc oxide

Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A10: If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use

It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link

The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

The location of the ground control station

The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?

A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz

14.020 MHz

28.330 MHz

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Disconnect

Acknowledgement

Connect

E2E11: What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Audio FSK has a superior frequency response

Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Storing and forwarding digital messages

Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon

High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?

Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator

Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator

Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

D-region absorption

Faraday rotation

Ground wave

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated

Cross modulation occurs

Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D03: How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead

When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise

Ignition noise

Power line noise

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz

23.5 kHz

7.12 kHz

E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage and current are in phase

E5C19: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

Point 2

Point 5

Point 6

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery

A transformer

An inductor

E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

Holes

Free protons

Free neutrons

E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage

A negative resistance region

An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS

It is totally immune to electrostatic damage

All of these choices are correct

E6D11: How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?

2 turns

4 turns

229 turns

E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

MMICs require no operating bias

Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Protons

Photons

Holes

E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"

It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7B08: How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

By increasing the driving power

By reducing the driving power

By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input

E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Higher efficiency

Lower losses

Greater transformation range

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It provides fixed bias for D1

It decouples hum from D1

E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Mixer blanking occurs

Automatic limiting occurs

A beat frequency is generated

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp

The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply

The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H14: What is a phase-locked loop circuit?

An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator

An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator

An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input

E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

25 to 1

1 to 1

100 to 1

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz

Approximately 26 Hz

Approximately 104 Hz

E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?

123 volts

96 volts

55 volts

E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?

A dipole one-quarter wavelength long

A type of ground-plane antenna

A dipole configured to provide forward gain

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

It causes increased SWR

It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands

It has high gain

It minimizes harmonic radiation

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The delta match

The epsilon match

The stub match

E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the input impedance to the generator

Very high impedance

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure

By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions