E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

All of the choices are correct

E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

The control operator of the packet bulletin board station

The control operators of all the stations in the system

The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station

Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?

A station operated away from its regular home location

A station controlled by someone other than the licensee

A station operating under automatic control

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA

Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

All of these choices are correct

E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?

The person may be fined or imprisoned

The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant

All these choices are correct

E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

1 W

1.5 W

1.5 kW

E2A05: What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions

The location of the ground control station

The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60

60 or 100

180 or 360

E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

To relay calls to and from a DX station

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Disconnect

Acknowledgement

Connect

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?

A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises

The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station

When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations

When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately twice the distance

By approximately one-half the distance

By approximately four times the distance

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Duration

SWR

Q

E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

All of these choices are correct

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D03: How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead

When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead

E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads

By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads

By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum

It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C

It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage and current are in phase

E5C14: What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

Maidenhead grid

Faraday grid

Elliptical coordinates

E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.414

0.866

1.73

E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common Mode Oscillating System

Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon

Common Mode Organic Silicon

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1

6

7

E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?

2

4

6

E6D06: What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?

Thermal impedance

Resistance

Reactivity

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Protons

Photons

Holes

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

E7B10: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

Load resistors

Self bias

Feedback

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Switching voltage regulator

Grounded emitter amplifier

Emitter follower

E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

A de-emphasis network

A heterodyne suppressor

An audio prescaler

E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse

It adds two decimal numbers together

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages

It must be neutralized

It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The number of degrees in one cycle

The number of zero crossings in one cycle

The amplitude of the wave

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

Easily copied by ear if necessary

Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts

120 volts

170 volts

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB

3.05 dB

4.30 dB

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

As low as possible on the vertical radiator

As close to the transmitter as possible

At a voltage node

E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

The driven element reactance must be inductive

The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G02: What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

Voltage circles and current arcs

Voltage lines and current chords

Resistance lines and reactance chords

E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

A large circularly-polarized antenna

A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core

A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire