Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
Mica
Zinc oxide
Beryllium Oxide
Uranium Hexaflouride
E1A04: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
E1C01: What is a remotely controlled station?
A station operated away from its regular home location
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
A station operating under automatic control
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
In FCC Part 97
In a question pool maintained by the FCC
In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
E1F08: Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
Communications that have a religious content
Communications in a language other than English
E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south
E2B09: What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
A special IF converter
A special front end limiter
A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
No other hardware is needed
E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?
Send your full call sign once or twice
Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
Send your full call sign and grid square
Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times
E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
Digipeating
Store-and-forward
Multi-satellite relaying
Node hopping
E2E07: What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
31 Hz
316 Hz
550 Hz
2.16 kHz
E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
Storing and forwarding digital messages
Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
High speed CW identification to avoid fading
E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night
E3C09: Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?
D-region absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Ground wave
E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth
E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
E5B10: What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage and current are in phase
E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
E5D14: What is reactive power?
Wattless, nonproductive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q
E6A16: What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
Holes
Free electrons
Free protons
Free neutrons
E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop
E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A logic-high state
A logic-low state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?
From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
Silicon
Silicon nitride
Silicon dioxide
Gallium nitride
E6F11: Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
0.1 V
0.5 V
1.5 V
12 V
E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
E7B10: In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
Load resistors
Fixed bias
Self bias
Feedback
E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?
A crystal filter
A cavity filter
A DSP filter
An L-C filter
E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?
To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
To allow for remote control of the power supply
To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
To reduce impulse noise reception
For higher efficiency
To remove third-order distortion products
E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop
E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance
A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
Through a quartz crystal
E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?
A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave
E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?
123 volts
96 volts
55 volts
48 volts
E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?
1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB
E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?
36 dB
18 dB
24 dB
14 dB
E9C02: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A cardioid
A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
Omnidirectional
E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?
A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire
E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?
Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct
E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?
2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10
E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation
E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?
It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
