E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?

12 meter band

17 meter band

30 meter band

E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

The location is near an area of political conflict

The location is of geographical or horticultural importance

The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link

Automatically manipulating local station controls

Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline

A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline

A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information

The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?

Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact

Send your full call sign and grid square

Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times

E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?

144.20 MHz

145.02 MHz

146.52 MHz

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning

Noon

Late at night

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately twice the distance

By approximately one-half the distance

By approximately four times the distance

E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

Dip meter

Ohmmeter

Q meter

E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

100 watts

125 watts

25 watts

E4C04: What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?

The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise

The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network

The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise

E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Too little gain

Lack of neutralization

Positive feedback

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

E5A13: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?

38.1 kHz

1.332 kHz

2.665 kHz

E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current

14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Point 3

Point 7

Point 8

E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?

Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies

Because of the Heisenburg Effect

Because conductors are non-linear devices

E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

The change of collector current with respect to base current

The change of base current with respect to collector current

The change of collector current with respect to gate current

E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

Point contact

Zener

Junction

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2

4

6

E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry

It can be used to make an audio delay line

It samples and stores analog signals

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light

The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy

The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A09: D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic "1"?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

E7B18: Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

High power gain

High filament voltage

Low bandwidth

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network

A network with only three discrete parts

A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D17: What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

The inverter design does not require any output filtering

It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power" from the unused portion of the AC cycle

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The speed of the logic devices used

Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply

Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages

It must be neutralized

It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?

Linear amplification

PSK31 data transmission

Multiphase power transmission

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Frequency hopping

Binary phase-shift keying

Phase compandored spread-spectrum

E8D02: What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of a symmetrical waveform?

0.707:1

1.414:1

4:1

E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?

The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction

The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power

The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present

E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts

Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns

Antenna gain

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees

75 degrees

25 degrees

E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The delta match

The epsilon match

The stub match

E9F01: What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance

The index of shielding for coaxial cable

The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E9G05: What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

Free-space radiation directivity chart

Elevation angle radiation pattern chart

Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure

By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions