E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation

Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings

Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height

You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins

You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations

A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks

It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E2A03: What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit

The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit

The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information

The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz

14.020 MHz

28.330 MHz

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift

It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon

All of these choices are correct

E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee

E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band

Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands

Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

It stays the same

It increases

It peaks at roughly 14 MHz

E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

Dip meter

Ohmmeter

Q meter

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated

Cross modulation occurs

Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Audio gain adjusted too low

Audio bias adjusted too high

Squelch gain misadjusted

E4E10: What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?

The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver

The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum

The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz

23.5 kHz

7.12 kHz

E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C09: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?

Reactive component

The sum of the reactive and resistive components

The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D16: What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.73

0.5

0.577

E6A15: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?

N-type

Superconductor-type

Bipolar-type

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1

2

3

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz

From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It decreases

It stays the same

It becomes unstable

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B03: Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies

A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients

A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It decouples the output

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator

Phase detector

Phase comparator

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator

Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference

Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier

An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Through a capacitive divider

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

Regular sinusoidal oscillations

A series of tones that vary between two frequencies

A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

0.214

0.47

47

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding

Reed-Solomon character encoding

Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D13: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts

120 volts

340 volts

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio

Distance from the transmitter

Take-off angle

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C07: What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

Azimuth

Radiation resistance

Polarization

E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased

No change occurs

It becomes flat

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Characteristic impedance

Surge impedance

Standing wave ratio

E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Radiation resistance

Antenna radiation pattern

Radio propagation

E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio

It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity

It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity