Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
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E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
E1A12: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?
Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
No, sidebands from the CW signal will be out of the band.
No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz
E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
E1C07: What is meant by local control?
Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
Automatically manipulating local station controls
Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
E1D01: What is the definition of the term telemetry?
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
Two-way single channel transmissions of data
One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
E1E14: For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
E1F01: On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
E2A01: What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south
E2B04: What is blanking in a video signal?
Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
Transmitting a black and white test pattern
E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz
E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
AMTOR
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet
E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night
E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
SSB signals are raspy
Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
All of these choices are correct
E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B06: How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
100 watts
125 watts
25 watts
75 watts
E4C13: How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
All of these choices are correct
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
E5A14: What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
44.72 MHz
22.36 MHz
3.56 MHz
1.78 MHz
E5B13: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
E5D10: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?
Excessive inverse voltage
Excessive junction temperature
Insufficient forward voltage
Charge carrier depletion
E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
12 volts
1.5 volts
5 volts
13.6 volts
E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
E6E12: What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?
An automatic notch filter
A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
A special filter that emphasizes image responses
A filter that removes impulse noise
E6F01: What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?
Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
It provides D1 with current
E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?
Discriminator
Phase detector
Product detector
Phase comparator
E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?
The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
E7G02: What is the effect of ringing in a filter?
An echo caused by a long time delay
A reduction in high frequency response
Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor
Through a quartz crystal
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses
E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?
120V AC
340V AC
85V AC
170V AC
E9A06: What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
Radiation resistance plus space impedance
Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?
Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation
E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long
E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?
It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio
E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
Frequency
SWR
Points with constant resistance
Points with constant reactance
E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?
A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
