Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
Specific local government channels
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations
Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct

E1F08: Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
Communications that have a religious content
Communications in a language other than English

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B11: What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission?

To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
To identify the SSTV mode being used
To provide vertical synchronization
To identify the call sign of the station transmitting

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

E3A08: When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?

In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR
Q
Time
Frequency

E4B08: Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

High reluctance input
Low reluctance input
High impedance input
Low impedance input

E4C11: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?

1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz

E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier

E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.02 seconds
0.04 seconds
20 seconds
40 seconds

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D13: How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

70.7 Watts
100 Watts
141.4 Watts
200 Watts

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D15: What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?

They consume less power
They can display changes instantly
They are visible in all light conditions
They can be easily interchanged with other display devices

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F11: Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

0.1 V
0.5 V
1.5 V
12 V

E7A04: How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

1
2
4
8

E7B17: Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular concern in linear power amplifiers?

Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals

E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

A Butterworth filter
An active LC filter
A passive op-amp filter
A Chebyshev filter

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F07: What determines the accuracy of a frequency counter?

The accuracy of the time base
The speed of the logic devices used
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the mixer diodes

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp
The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H18: What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?

Phase noise
Digital conversion noise
Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
Nyquist limit noise

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

E8C07: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts

E9A15: What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal

E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Feed point impedance may become negative
The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
Element spacing limits could be exceeded
The gain may change depending on frequency

E9C09: What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

15 dB
28 dB
3 dB
24 dB

E9D14: Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

A resistive wire, such as a spark plug wire
A wide flat copper strap
A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge conductors in parallel
A single 12 or 10-gauge stainless steel wire

E9E06: 3-element Yagi?

Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis

E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls