E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A11: What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement

Only General class or higher amateur licenses

An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

60 Hz

170 Hz

1.5 kHz

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link

Automatically manipulating local station controls

Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D09: Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station?

70 cm

70 cm and 33 cm

33 cm and 13 cm

E1E08: To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

Employees of the VE

Friends of the VE

All of these choices are correct

E1F01: On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz

Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

HEO

Geomagnetic

LEO

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz

29.6 MHz

52.525 MHz

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear

A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence

E2D05: Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

Digipeating

Multi-satellite relaying

Node hopping

E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

RTTY

PACTOR

MT63

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Storing and forwarding digital messages

Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon

High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B07: Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

High D layer absorption

Meteor scatter

Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF

E3C07: How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height

The horizontal beam width increases with height

The horizontal beam width decreases with height

E4A02: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

SWR

Q

Time

E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line

The transmitter is not properly neutralized

There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line

E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization

Cross-modulation interference

Frequency discrimination

E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Quieting

Cross-modulation interference

Squelch gain rollback

E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels

Signals which appear at one IF but not another

Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution

E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Minimum

R/L

L/R

E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?

An exponential rate of one

One exponential period

A time factor of one

E5C10: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?

Resistive component

The sum of the reactive and resistive components

The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts

1000 watts

1600 watts

E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?

2

4

5

E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation

As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit

As a constant voltage reference in a power supply

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2

4

6

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz

From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

The generation of electrical energy by the application of light

Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

An ordinary metal

A heavy metal

A liquid semiconductor

E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0

It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state

It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Exactly 180 degrees

The entire cycle

Less than 180 degrees

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter

A Pi-network filter

An all-pass filter

E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides a constant load to the voltage source

It couples hum to D1

It bypasses hum around D1

E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

To reduce impulse noise reception

For higher efficiency

To remove third-order distortion products

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G08: How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

It increases linearly with increasing frequency

It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Through a tapped coil

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII

AX.25

Baudot

E8D16: What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?

170V AC

240V AC

300V AC

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D03: How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

It increases geometrically

It increases arithmetically

It is essentially unaffected

E9E01: What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

The gamma matching system

The omega matching system

The stub matching system

E9F07: How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

Higher SWR

Smaller reflection coefficient

Lower velocity factor

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts

632 watts

63.2 watts