Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A06: Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
Ground reflections and scattering make the field impedance vary with location
E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
All of these choices are correct

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge
300 Hz below the upper band edge
1 kHz below the upper band edge
3 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters
6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
2 meters and 1.25 meters
2 meters

E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?

In FCC Part 97
In a question pool maintained by the FCC
In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct

E2A02: What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

From north to south
From west to east
From east to west
From south to north

E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Specific tone frequencies
Elapsed time
Specific tone amplitudes
A two-tone signal

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D11: Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

Polar coordinates
Time and frequency
Radio direction finding LOPs
Latitude and longitude

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B03: What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night

E3C04: Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

CW
SSB
FM
RTTY

E4A11: Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

Dip meter
Oscilloscope
Ohmmeter
Q meter

E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions
It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely
It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The difference in dB between the noise floor and thelevel of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E13: What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
All of these choices are correct

E5A17: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

10.1 MHz
63.2 MHz
10.1 kHz
63.2 kHz

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds
110 seconds
440 seconds
220 seconds

E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?

704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2
4
5
6

E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic

E6E08: How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
MMICs require no operating bias
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes unstable

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate
An "OR" gate
A flip-flop
A clock

E7B14: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?

Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Input coupling
Hum filtering

E7C05: Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

A Butterworth filter
An active LC filter
A passive op-amp filter
A Chebyshev filter

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By rectification and filtering of RF signals
By breakdown of the Zener voltage
By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q

E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

E8A10: Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

Regular sinusoidal oscillations
Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of no signal
A series of tones that vary between two frequencies
A signal that contains three or more discrete tones

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication

E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts
120 volts
340 volts
170 volts

E9A10: How is antenna efficiency calculated?

(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
(radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

4
3
1
7

E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?

In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite

E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?

It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters
20 meters
10 meters
71 meters

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions

E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire