E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

All of the choices are correct

E1A05: What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole

100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

The location is near an area of political conflict

The location is of geographical or horticultural importance

The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

A control operator need not be present at the control point

Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

Any amateur station designated by NASA

Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

All of these choices are correct

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations

A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations

The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Business-related messages for non-profit organizations

Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service

All of these choices are correct

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Elapsed time

Specific tone amplitudes

A two-tone signal

E2C11: How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?

Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact

Send your full call sign and grid square

Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is, then your call sign three times

E2D08: Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

Disconnect

Acknowledgement

Connect

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B05: Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

160 to 40 meters

30 to 10 meters

6 meters to 2 meters

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy

Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery

CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise

E4A10: Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately

Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms

Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately

E4B07: Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

All of these choices are correct

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other

The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise

Ignition noise

Power line noise

E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Maximum

R/L

L/R

E5B12: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Point 3

Point 7

Point 8

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery

A transformer

An inductor

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity

N-type impurity

Donor impurity

E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?

As a constant current source

As a constant voltage source

As a high voltage rectifier

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2

4

6

E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency

A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver

A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F09: What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

The output RF power divided by the input dc power

The effective payback period

The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

E7A07: What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"

E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

Exactly 180 degrees

The entire cycle

Less than 180 degrees

E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?

It is a low-pass filter

It is a band-pass filter

It is a notch filter

E7D14: What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional (unregulated) power supply?

To cut down on waste heat generated by the power supply

To balance the low-voltage filament windings

To boost the amount of output current

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency

The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies

1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse

It adds two decimal numbers together

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very high

100 ohms

1000 ohms

E7H11: What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Broadband noise

Digital conversion noise

Nyquist limit noise

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B04: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

6000

2000

1/3

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?

123 volts

96 volts

55 volts

E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Transmission-line length

Constant feed point impedance

Sunspot activity and time of day

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

A cardioid

Omnidirectional

A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array

E9D08: What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils?

It is increased

No change occurs

It becomes flat

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

20 meters

2.3 meters

0.2 meters

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis

Impedance axis

Polar axis

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts