Ham Extra License Practice Quiz

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E0A08: What does SAR measure?

Synthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
Signal Amplification Rating
The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
All of these choices are correct
E2A13: What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

HEO
Geostationary
Geomagnetic
LEO
E2B02: How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

30
60
525
1080
E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

48 baud
110 baud
300 baud
1200 baud
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles
E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?

In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region
E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions
It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely
It can display results directly in Smith chart format
E4C09: Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?

Fewer components in the receiver
Reduced drift
Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
Improved receiver noise figure
E4D12: What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

Desensitization
Quieting
Cross-modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
E4E03: Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

Signals which are constant at all IF levels
Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
Signals which appear at one IF but not another
Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?

The highest frequency that will pass current
The lowest frequency that will pass current
The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
E5B08: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
E5C03: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?

500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.414
0.866
0.5
1.73
E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity
E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage
Excessive junction temperature
Insufficient forward voltage
Charge carrier depletion
E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1
2
3
4
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?

A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
A dynamic memory storage element
A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions
E7B03: Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity
E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter
Single-Sideband voice
Digital
Video
E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
To allow for remote control of the power supply
To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
E7E05: What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

A de-emphasis network
A heterodyne suppressor
An audio prescaler
A pre-emphasis network
E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements
It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
E7G12: What is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input and very low output impedance
A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Sequential sampling
Harmonic regeneration
Level shifting
Phase reversal
E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage
E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

Transmission-line length
Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
Constant feed point impedance
Sunspot activity and time of day
E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases
The front-to-back ratio decreases
The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
The SWR is reduced
E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth
The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
The antenna requires a large physical area and 4 separate supports
The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type
E9D12: What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
It has high gain
It minimizes harmonic radiation
It may be used for multiband operation
E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

20 meters
2.3 meters
3.5 meters
0.2 meters
E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
E9H07: Why is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction finding?

It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
It compensates for the effects of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
It prevents receiver overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls