E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station

Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

E1C10: What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

Only beacon, repeater or space stations

Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft

Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations

E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers

It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry

To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals

To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60

60 or 100

180 or 360

E2C02: Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to contest operating?

The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network

A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E09: Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

RTTY

PACTOR

MT63

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B07: Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

High D layer absorption

Meteor scatter

Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF

E3C05: Which of the following describes selective fading?

Variability of signal strength with beam heading

Sideband inversion within the ionosphere

Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?

Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base

Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna

Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer

E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals

It reduces receiver sensitivity

It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range

E4D11: Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?

The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders

Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal

You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A10: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?

1.89 kHz

94.5 kHz

9.45 kHz

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds

110 seconds

440 seconds

E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?

173 - j100 ohms

200 + j100 ohms

200 - j100 ohms

E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?

Coulomb

Watt

Volt

E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1

The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction

The switching speed of the transistor

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Tunnel diode

Silicon-controlled rectifier

Zener diode

E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

1

3

4

E6D05: What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?

A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency

A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver

A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

The generation of electrical energy by the application of light

Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F07: What is a solid state relay?

A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil

A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

A passive delay line

E7A09: D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic "1"?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"

It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

E7B03: Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies

A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients

A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity

E7C10: Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?

A crystal filter

A DSP filter

An L-C filter

E7D12: What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It provides fixed bias for D1

It decouples hum from D1

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F03: What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?

It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse

It adds two decimal numbers together

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms

1000 ohms

Very low

E7H05: How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

Through a tapped coil

Through link coupling

Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?

Linear amplification

PSK31 data transmission

Multiphase power transmission

E8B06: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

0.214

0.47

47

E8C03: What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?

It includes built-in error-correction features

It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code

It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

9.9 watts

24.5 watts

16 watts

E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?

The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction

The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power

The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes

Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F05: What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

20 meters

2.3 meters

0.2 meters

E9G10: What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

Frequency

SWR

Points with constant resistance

E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?

1977 watts

78.7 watts

420 watts