E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Mica

Zinc oxide

Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A08: If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

The control operator of the packet bulletin board station

The control operators of all the stations in the system

The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link

Automatically manipulating local station controls

Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E1E12: What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

Maintain the application form with the VEC's records

Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade

Destroy the application form

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline

A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline

A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B03: How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

By scanning two fields simultaneously

By scanning each field from bottom to top

By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

E2C06: During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?

At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests

In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency

In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E2D09: Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?

AMTOR

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

PSK31

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

Pulse modulation

Spread spectrum

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is full

When the Moon is at apogee

When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles

2500 miles

7500 miles

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip

D-region skip

Downward bending due to aurora refraction

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals

A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals

A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

165.2 Hz

14.652 kHz

1.4652 MHz

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Capacitance

Conductance

Resistance

E5B03: The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?

86.5%

63.2%

36.8%

E5C12: If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?

It has to be a direct current circuit

It contains resistance and capacitive reactance

It contains resistance and inductive reactance

E5D06: In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

In the same direction as the current

In a direction opposite to the current

In all directions; omnidirectional

E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

2

3

6

E6B11: What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

A sub-harmonic pump signal

Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal

Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?

The heater voltage

The operating temperature

The operating frequency

E6E11: Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

Silicon

Silicon nitride

Silicon dioxide

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier

A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B02: What is a Class D amplifier?

A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improved linearity

An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency

A frequency doubling amplifier

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Switching voltage regulator

Grounded emitter amplifier

Emitter follower

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency

The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies

1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F04: What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?

An emitter-follower

Two frequency multipliers

A voltage divider

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very high

100 ohms

1000 ohms

E7H12: Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Phase splitter

Hex inverter

Chroma demodulator

E8A07: What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

The frequency of the modulating signal

The degree of carrier suppression

The amplifier gain

E8B10: Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?

Frequency shift keying

A diversity combiner

Pulse compression

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Direct sequence

Time-domain frequency modulation

Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D07: What is an electromagnetic wave?

Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet

A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other

A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?

A dipole one-quarter wavelength long

A type of ground-plane antenna

A dipole configured to provide forward gain

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled

The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy

The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

It causes increased SWR

It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change

Gain is multiplied by 0.707

Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The delta match

The epsilon match

The stub match

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters

20 meters

71 meters

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

Power factor

Half-power bandwidth

Apparent power