Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B04: What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E13: What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?

The licensee's license will be cancelled
The person may be fined or imprisoned
The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
All these choices are correct

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator
Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Because the satellite is spinning
Because of ionospheric absorption
Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
Because of the Doppler Effect

E2B15: What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?

Specific tone frequencies
Elapsed time
Specific tone amplitudes
A two-tone signal

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately 15% of the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer

E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions
It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely
It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C02: Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

A front-end filter or pre-selector
A narrow IF filter
A notch filter
A properly adjusted product detector

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E5C10: When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?

Resistive component
Reactive component
The sum of the reactive and resistive components
The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5D10: How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?

By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor

E6A04: What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

Insulator impurity
N-type impurity
Acceptor impurity
Donor impurity

E6B09: What is a common use for point contact diodes?

As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption

E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E12: What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?

An automatic notch filter
A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
A special filter that emphasizes image responses
A filter that removes impulse noise

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor

E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier

E7C06: What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7D08: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

Switching voltage regulator
Grounded emitter amplifier
Linear voltage regulator
Emitter follower

E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
To reduce impulse noise reception
For higher efficiency
To remove third-order distortion products

E7F08: Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E7G13: What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition

E7H03: How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

Through a tapped coil
Through a capacitive divider
Through link coupling
Through a neutralizing capacitor

E8A04: What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?

The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding peak AC voltage
The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage
The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison
Numerical Electromagnetics Code
National Electrical Code
Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C08: What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

45 degrees
75 degrees
7.5 degrees
25 degrees

E9D02: How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase

E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?

It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
It divides power equally among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power flow to the others
It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters
20 meters
10 meters
71 meters

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis

E9H06: What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source on a map
Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source