E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted

Operation is restricted to LSB

All of these choices are correct

E1B10: What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?

Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands

Specific local government channels

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link

Automatically manipulating local station controls

Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters

6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters

2 meters and 1.25 meters

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F06: What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope

An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E2A06: On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

144-146 MHz

50.0-50.2 MHz

29.5 to 29.7 MHz

E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

PAL

DRM

Scottie

E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

To relay calls to and from a DX station

E2D03: Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

FSK441

PACTOR III

Olivia

E2E11: What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Audio FSK has a superior frequency response

Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection

Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain

E3A09: Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

1.8 - 1.9 MHz

10 - 14 MHz

220 - 450 MHz

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C13: What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Horizontal

Circular

Elliptical

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals

A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals

A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B14: What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

Harmonics are generated

Cross modulation occurs

Intermodulation distortion occurs

E4C01: What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?

It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals

It reduces receiver sensitivity

It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range

E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Too little gain

Lack of neutralization

Positive feedback

E4E08: What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?

An electrical-sparking signal

A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency

Harmonics of the AC power line frequency

E5A01: What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

Capacitance

Conductance

Resistance

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.04 seconds

20 seconds

40 seconds

E5C15: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?

100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery

A transformer

An inductor

E6A14: How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

They are both low impedance

An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance

They are both high impedance

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage

Insufficient forward voltage

Charge carrier depletion

E6C04: Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

Low power consumption

High speed operation

More efficient arithmetic operations

E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency

It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter

It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F01: What is photoconductivity?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy

The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

E7A01: Which of the following is a bistable circuit?

An "AND" gate

An "OR" gate

A clock

E7B19: What is a klystron?

A high speed multivibrator

An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube

An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability

E7C13: What is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

L networks cannot perform impedance transformation

Pi networks have fewer components

Pi networks are designed for balanced input and output

E7D02: What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?

The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current

It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator

It gives a ramp voltage at its output

E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

To reduce impulse noise reception

For higher efficiency

To remove third-order distortion products

E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal

To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency

E7G04: Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?

Electrolytic

Disc ceramic

Paper

E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

The voltage range over which the circuit can lock

The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock

The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The number of degrees in one cycle

The number of zero crossings in one cycle

The amplitude of the wave

E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

60

0.167

0.6

E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

Easily copied by ear if necessary

Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts

16 watts

18 watts

E9A08: What is meant by antenna gain?

The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction

The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power

The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including any phasing lines present

E9B02: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-back ratio?

36 dB

24 dB

14 dB

E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth

The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal

The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

As low as possible on the vertical radiator

As close to the transmitter as possible

At a voltage node

E9E07: What term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

Characteristic impedance

Velocity factor

Dielectric constant

E9F14: What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Very high impedance

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the output impedance of the generator

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis

Impedance axis

Polar axis

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

2000 watts

126 watts

300 watts