Ham Extra License Practice Quiz

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E0A11: Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct

E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz

E1C07: What is meant by local control?

Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
Automatically manipulating local station controls
Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver

E1D08: Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

6 meters and 2 meters
6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
2 meters and 1.25 meters
2 meters

E1E03: What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E1F02: Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

CEPT agreement
IARP agreement
ITU reciprocal license
All of these choices are correct

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite

E2B13: How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?

30 to 60
60 or 100
128 or 256
180 or 360

E2C09: How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct

E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

48 baud
110 baud
300 baud
1200 baud

E3A02: What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?

A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
A fluttery irregular fading
A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF

E3C14: Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

E-region skip
D-region skip
Downward bending due to aurora refraction
Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy
Time base accuracy
Decade divider accuracy
Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C08: How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?

It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
It would improve weak signal sensitivity
It would reduce bandwidth
It would increase bandwidth

E4D14: Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
Raise the receiver IF frequency
Increase the receiver front end gain
Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

E4E12: What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters

E5A16: What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

23.5 MHz
23.5 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?

5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D17: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?

200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts

E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?


E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?


E6D07: What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

2 dB
-10 dB
44 dBm
-20 dBm

E6F04: What is the photovoltaic effect?

The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
The conversion of light to electrical energy
The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?


E7B08: How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

By increasing the driving power
By reducing the driving power
By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input

E7C11: Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?


E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
Incoming RF is mixed to "baseband" for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?


E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

2.5 to 1
25 to 1
1 to 1
100 to 1

E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?


E8C11: What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
It gives a more accurate display of the PEP output when modulation is present
It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio
Distance from the transmitter
Soil conductivity
Take-off angle

E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?

SWR vs. frequency charts
Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
Antenna gain
All of these choices are correct

E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

A cardioid
A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D11: What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?

To increase the SWR bandwidth
To lower the losses
To lower the Q
To cancel capacitive reactance

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct

E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?


E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Trigonometric functions

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals