Ham Extra License Practice Quiz

• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem
E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D02: What is the amateur satellite service?

A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
E1E01: What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

5
2
4
3
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B03: How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

By scanning two fields simultaneously
By scanning each field from bottom to top
By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next
E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm
E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder
To delay download of telemetry between satellites
To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
To relay messages between satellites
E2E11: What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?

Long-path
Sporadic-E
Transequatorial
Auroral
E3C13: What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct
E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions
It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely
It can display results directly in Smith chart format
E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Detector noise
Induction motor noise
Receiver front-end noise
Atmospheric noise
E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
E4E07: How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"
E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds
E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?

173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A13: What do the initials CMOS stand for?

Common Mode Oscillating System
Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
Common Mode Organic Silicon
E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Varactor diode
Tunnel diode
Silicon-controlled rectifier
Zener diode
E6C06: Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
Input signals are stronger
E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?

It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
E6F05: Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.
E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None
One
Two
Four
E7B16: What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

Transmission of spurious signals
Creation of parasitic oscillations
Low efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network
A Pi network with an additional series inductor on the output
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
E7D01: What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?

It has a ramp voltage as its output
It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
E7E12: What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

An FM generator circuit
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
An automatic band-switching circuit
A circuit for detecting FM signals
E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements
It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp
The values of capacitors and resistors external to the op-amp
The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply
E7H13: What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?

The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
E8A06: What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

2.5 to 1
25 to 1
1 to 1
100 to 1
E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
Two or more information streams are merged into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz
Approximately 26 Hz
Approximately 52 Hz
Approximately 104 Hz
E8D12: What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads 34 volts?

123 volts
96 volts
55 volts
48 volts
E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.17 dB
9.85 dB
12.5 dB
14.15 dB
E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Feed point impedance may become negative
The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
Element spacing limits could be exceeded
The gain may change depending on frequency
E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

4
3
1
7
E9D06: Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

To swamp out harmonics
To maximize losses
To minimize losses
To minimize the Q
E9E06: 3-element Yagi?

Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank
E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
Electrical signals move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
E9G09: What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles
E9H03: What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?

159 watts
252 watts
632 watts
63.2 watts