E0A09: Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Mica

Zinc oxide

Uranium Hexaflouride

E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio

Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E1B02: Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

The location is near an area of political conflict

The location is of geographical or horticultural importance

The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments

E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Never

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D06: Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA

All of these choices are correct

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F05: Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

440 - 450 MHz

53 - 54 MHz

222 - 223 MHz

E2A10: Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

Because of ionospheric absorption

Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude

Because of the Doppler Effect

E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?

A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E2C07: What is the Cabrillo format?

A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO

The most common set of contest rules

The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E2D06: Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?

144.20 MHz

145.02 MHz

146.52 MHz

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?

Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator

Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator

Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South

East

West

E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?

The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer

Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency

The spectral output of a transmitter

E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions

It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source

It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C15: What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

Detector noise

Induction motor noise

Receiver front-end noise

E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Audio gain adjusted too low

Audio bias adjusted too high

Squelch gain misadjusted

E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal

You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station

Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A07: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

Maximum

R/L

L/R

E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

One discharge period

An exponential discharge rate of one

A discharge factor of one

E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Point 3

Point 7

Point 8

E5D02: Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?

Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies

Because of the Heisenburg Effect

Because conductors are non-linear devices

E6A05: What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?

The change of collector current with respect to base current

The change of base current with respect to collector current

The change of collector current with respect to gate current

E6B11: What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

A sub-harmonic pump signal

Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal

Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

E6C09: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?

2

4

6

E6D04: What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?

It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning

It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image

It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal

E6E06: What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.

Plate current that is controlled by a control grid

Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier

A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B20: What is a parametric amplifier?

A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector

A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain

An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

To provide line voltage stabilization

Peak clipping

Hum filtering

E7E02: What is the function of a reactance modulator?

To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

100 ohms

1000 ohms

Very low

E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

It must have at least two stages

It must be neutralized

It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal

E8A15: What would the waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional oscilloscope?

A series of sine waves with evenly spaced gaps

A running display of alpha-numeric characters

None of the above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C10: What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

Direct sequence

Time-domain frequency modulation

Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8D14: Which of the following is a typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical outlet?

240 volts

120 volts

170 volts

E9A01: Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?

A grounded antenna used to measure earth conductivity

A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas

A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth

E9B06: If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?

The SWR decreases

The front-to-back ratio increases

The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

It causes increased SWR

It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change

Gain is multiplied by 0.707

Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E02: What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

The delta match

The epsilon match

The stub match

E9F16: Which of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

Reduced safe operating voltage limits

Reduced losses per unit of length

Higher velocity factor

E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength

In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations

It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position