E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

Only the most powerful transmitter

Only commercial transmitters

Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%

E1A03: With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact

Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band

No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz

E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

60 Hz

170 Hz

1.5 kHz

E1C05: When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions

When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations

When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class

Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E14: For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course

No expenses are authorized for reimbursement

Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions

The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B06: What is vestigial sideband modulation?

A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted

Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier

Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E2C12: What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

Switch to a higher frequency HF band

Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass

Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?

WSPR

Hellschreiber

APRS

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A05: Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

Storing and forwarding digital messages

Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon

High speed CW identification to avoid fading

E3B04: What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?

Sporadic-E

Transequatorial

Auroral

E3C10: How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction

The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction

The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Duration

SWR

Q

E4B09: What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line

The transmitter is not properly neutralized

There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D08: What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

Too little gain

Lack of neutralization

Positive feedback

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Broadband white noise

Heterodyne interference

All of these choices are correct

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum

It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C

It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B11: What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5C21: Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

Point 3

Point 7

Point 8

E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?

Coulomb

Watt

Volt

E6A02: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

P-type

Bipolar

Insulated gate

E6B04: What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

Tunnel diode

Silicon-controlled rectifier

Zener diode

E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

1

2

3

E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

13 turns

79 turns

141 turns

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

The generation of electrical energy by the application of light

Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

Protons

Photons

Holes

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

Nuvistor

Silicon controlled rectifier

Triac

E7C02: A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?

It is a low-pass filter

It is a band-pass filter

It is a notch filter

E7D13: What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

To provide line voltage stabilization

Peak clipping

Hum filtering

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging

Prescaling

D/A conversion

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp

The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply

The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H11: What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

Broadband noise

Digital conversion noise

Nyquist limit noise

E8A08: What is the period of a wave?

The number of degrees in one cycle

The number of zero crossings in one cycle

The amplitude of the wave

E8B11: Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding

Reed-Solomon character encoding

Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D06: What is the advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB phone transmitter?

It is easier to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit

It makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line

It can determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks

E9A10: How is antenna efficiency calculated?

(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%

(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%

(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

E9B05: What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

The front-to-back ratio increases

The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band

The SWR is reduced

E9C04: Which of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?

Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance

Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;

Four-sides, each of a different physical length

E9D10: What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

72 ohms

50 ohms

450 ohms

E9E13: What is the purpose of a Wilkinson divider?

It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band

It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source

It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source

E9F10: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A capacitive reactance

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis

Impedance axis

Polar axis

E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?

It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations

It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals

It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position