E0A10: What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?

Polyethylene

Polytetrafluroethylene

Polymorphic silicon

E1A01: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact upper band edge

300 Hz below the upper band edge

1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1B07: Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

At the lowest frequency of the channel

At the highest frequency of the channel

On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link

The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau

Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session

E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?

To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels

To provide additional spectrum for personal use

To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

E2A02: What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

From west to east

From east to west

From south to north

E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

10 KHz

15 KHz

20 KHz

E2C05: What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

To relay calls to and from a DX station

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift

It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon

All of these choices are correct

E2E05: How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

Special binary codes provide automatic correction

Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B11: Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?

Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band

Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands

Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands

E3C07: How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height

The horizontal beam width increases with height

The horizontal beam width decreases with height

E4A05: Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B02: What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

It provides an excellent match under all conditions

It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source

It can display results directly in Smith chart format

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products

A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E5A06: What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

It is at a minimum

It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C

It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"

E5B02: What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

One discharge period

An exponential discharge rate of one

A discharge factor of one

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D11: What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

1.414

0.866

1.73

E6A03: What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?

Free neutrons

Free protons

Free electrons

E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation

As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit

As a constant voltage reference in a power supply

E6C01: What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?

12 volts

1.5 volts

13.6 volts

E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

The generation of electrical energy by the application of light

Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

An ordinary metal

A heavy metal

A liquid semiconductor

E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?

A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit

A dynamic memory storage element

A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions

E7B21: Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?

Nuvistor

Silicon controlled rectifier

Triac

E7C01: How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground

Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground

An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output

E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications

To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage

To allow for remote control of the power supply

E7E01: Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier

A reactance modulator on the final amplifier

A balanced modulator on the oscillator

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging

Prescaling

D/A conversion

E7G06: Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

As a high-pass filter used to block RFI at the input to receivers

As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission line

For smoothing power-supply output

E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal

Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency

E8A01: What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

A sine wave

A cosine wave

A tangent wave

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII

AX.25

Baudot

E8D09: What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape

Waves that circle the Earth

Waves produced by a loop antenna

E9A10: How is antenna efficiency calculated?

(radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%

(total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%

(effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

E9B07: How does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna, assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its front to back ratio

The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that from the directional antenna

E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Omnidirectional

A cardioid

A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D01: How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

Gain does not change

Gain is multiplied by 0.707

Gain increases by 3 dB

E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

An SWR less than 1:1

A reflection coefficient greater than 1

A dielectric constant greater than 1

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters

20 meters

71 meters

E9G03: Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

Beam headings and radiation patterns

Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

Trigonometric functions

E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

A large circularly-polarized antenna

A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core

A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire