Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge
300 Hz above the lower band edge
1 kHz above the lower band edge
3 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1E11: What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
All these choices are correct

E1F01: On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz
29.6 MHz
52.525 MHz
1255 MHz

E2C04: On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

3.525 MHz
14.020 MHz
28.330 MHz
146.52 MHz

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16
170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
PSK31
300-baud packet

E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles

E3C06: By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

By approximately 15% of the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance

E4A12: Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
Match the antenna to the load
All of these choices are correct

E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz

E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz

E4D05: What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz

E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct

E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?

Minimum
Maximum
R/L
L/R

E5B03: The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?

86.5%
63.2%
36.8%
13.5%

E5C17: In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?

173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms

E5D07: What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?

The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current

E6A11: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

1
2
3
6

E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
Enhanced carrier retention time
Less forward voltage drop

E6C07: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

1
2
3
4

E6D03: Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes unstable

E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

E7B01: For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?

More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
Exactly 180 degrees
The entire cycle
Less than 180 degrees

E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter

E7D15: What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
To allow for remote control of the power supply
To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually

E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging
Period measurement plus mathematical computation
Prescaling
D/A conversion

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms

E7H16: Why is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?

Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the loop from changing frequency

E8A11: What is one use for a pulse modulated signal?

Linear amplification
PSK31 data transmission
Multiphase power transmission
Digital data transmission

E8B05: What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

60
0.167
0.6
1.67

E8C04: What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

Zero-sum character encoding
Reed-Solomon character encoding
Use of sinusoidal data pulses
Use of trapezoidal data pulses

E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?

120V AC
340V AC
85V AC
170V AC

E9A07: What is a folded dipole antenna?

A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
A type of ground-plane antenna
A dipole constructed from one wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
A dipole configured to provide forward gain

E9B03: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

12 dB
14 dB
18 dB
24 dB

E9C10: How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

4
3
1
7

E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node

E9E04: What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics
To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value

E9F08: What is the term for the ratio of the actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a vacuum?

Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio

E9G01: Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

Impedance along transmission lines
Radiation resistance
Antenna radiation pattern
Radio propagation

E9H09: Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
One or more turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
A vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire