Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A04: When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
Only the most powerful transmitter
Only commercial transmitters
Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at accessible locations
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%
E1A13: Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
E1B05: What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
60 Hz
170 Hz
1.5 kHz
2.8 kHz
E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?
The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
E1D07: Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
All HF bands
E1E09: What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
A sentence of up to one year in prison
All of these choices are correct
E1F11: Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
E2B11: What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission?
To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
To identify the SSTV mode being used
To provide vertical synchronization
To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?
Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
To separate the calling stations from the DX station
To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
All of these choices are correct
E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
WSPR
FSK441
Hellschreiber
APRS
E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum
E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region
E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct
E4B11: How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
E4C05: What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
E4D04: Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
A Class C final amplifier
A Class D final amplifier
E4E02: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
Broadband white noise
Ignition noise
Power line noise
All of these choices are correct
E5A12: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
436.6 kHz
218.3 kHz
31.4 kHz
15.7 kHz
E5B01: What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one
E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy
E6A15: Which of the following semiconductor materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?
N-type
P-type
Superconductor-type
Bipolar-type
E6B03: What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
Point contact
Zener
Tunnel
Junction
E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D16: What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
E6E03: What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
E6F12: What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
Protons
Photons
Electrons
Holes
E7A03: Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
An XOR gate
A flip-flop
An OR gate
A multiplexer
E7B08: How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?
By increasing the driving power
By reducing the driving power
By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
E7C07: What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A band-pass filter
A notch filter
A Pi-network filter
An all-pass filter
E7D04: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?
A series current source
A series regulator
A shunt regulator
A shunt current source
E7E03: How does an analog phase modulator function?
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
E7F09: What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
E7G05: How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q
E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?
An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube
E8A08: What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?
Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
Easily copied by ear if necessary
Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB
E9B14: What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
SWR vs. frequency charts
Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
Antenna gain
All of these choices are correct
E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
It should be configured as a four-sided loop
It should be one or more wavelengths long
E9D11: What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?
To increase the SWR bandwidth
To lower the losses
To lower the Q
To cancel capacitive reactance
E9E05: How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
The driven element reactance must be capacitive
The driven element reactance must be inductive
The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
E9F11: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis
E9H04: What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?
Power factor
Half-power bandwidth
Effective radiated power
Apparent power
