E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer

Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

All of the choices are correct

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge

300 Hz above the lower band edge

1 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B03: Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

3 miles

10 miles

30 miles

E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

18.110 - 18.168 MHz

24.940 - 24.990 MHz

10.100 - 10.150 MHz

E1D04: What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space

Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F12: Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

Any licensed amateur operator

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry

To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals

To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs

E2B18: On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?

14.230 MHz

29.6 MHz

52.525 MHz

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations

To separate the calling stations from the DX station

To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency

E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?

It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift

It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon

All of these choices are correct

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

Pulse modulation

Spread spectrum

E3A07: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?

430.000 - 430.150 MHz

430.100 - 431.100 MHz

431.100 - 431.200 MHz

E3B06: Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

80 meters

10 meters

6 meters

E3C12: How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

It stays the same

It increases

It peaks at roughly 14 MHz

E4A03: Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?

Duration

SWR

Q

E4B15: Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

The inductance to capacitance ratio

The frequency shift

The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4C13: How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise

It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing

All of these choices are correct

E4D06: What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?

Amplifier desensitization

Neutralization

Adjacent channel interference

E4E05: How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads

By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads

By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor

E5A12: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

436.6 kHz

218.3 kHz

15.7 kHz

E5B04: What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

55 seconds

110 seconds

440 seconds

E5C05: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E5D09: What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

It is dissipated as heat in the circuit

It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit

It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2

5

6

E6B10: In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

1

6

7

E6C11: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?

2

4

6

E6D13: What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

Electromagnetic

Tubular

Radar

E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

Ground-plane construction

Point-to-point construction

Wave-soldering construction

E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?

An ordinary metal

A heavy metal

A liquid semiconductor

E7A10: What is a truth table?

A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp

A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp

E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

Switching voltage regulator

Linear voltage regulator

Emitter follower amplifier

E7C04: How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and reactances are matched to the resistances

E7D04: Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

A series current source

A shunt regulator

A shunt current source

E7E11: Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

Discriminator

Phase detector

Phase comparator

E7F10: What alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting input pulses, is used by some counters?

GPS averaging

Prescaling

D/A conversion

E7G15: What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

Very high

100 ohms

1000 ohms

E7H07: What is a magnetron oscillator?

An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer

A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field

A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B09: What is meant by deviation ratio?

The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency

The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E8C13: What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

Easily copied by ear if necessary

Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E8D15: Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?

340V AC

85V AC

170V AC

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna

To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna

To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?

Feed point impedance may become negative

The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse

Element spacing limits could be exceeded

E9C13: What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

It causes increased SWR

It changes the impedance angle of the matching network

It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E9D03: How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?

It increases geometrically

It increases arithmetically

It is essentially unaffected

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match

The delta match

The omega match

E9F03: Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length?

Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

The surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line

E9G06: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

Prime axis

Impedance axis

Polar axis

E9H08: What is the function of a sense antenna?

It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals