E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?

There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation

Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings

Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem

E1A09: What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules

Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office

Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 53 dB below

At least 63 dB below

At least 73 dB below

E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

Under local control there is no control operator

Under automatic control there is no control operator

Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class

Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class

Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E06: Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

The VEC coordinating the session

The FCC

The VE session manager

E1F14: Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?

To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels

To provide additional spectrum for personal use

To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing

E2A04: What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite

The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth

Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2B03: How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

By scanning two fields simultaneously

By scanning each field from bottom to top

By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next

E2C10: Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations

To separate the calling stations from the DX station

To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR

802.11

AMTOR

E2E10: Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

MFSK16

170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

300-baud packet

E3A06: What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

144.000 - 144.001 MHz

144.100 - 144.300 MHz

145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3B01: What is transequatorial propagation?

Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator

Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator

Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3C01: Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?

SSB signals are raspy

Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery

CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise

E4A01: How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?

A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals

A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals

A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

E4B01: Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

Input attenuator accuracy

Decade divider accuracy

Temperature coefficient of the logic

E4C03: What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

Desensitization

Cross-modulation interference

Frequency discrimination

E4D01: What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other

The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point

The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Broadband white noise

Heterodyne interference

All of these choices are correct

E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?

The highest frequency that will pass current

The lowest frequency that will pass current

The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy

Thermodynamic energy

Kinetic energy

E6A10: In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

2

5

6

E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?

As balanced mixers in FM generation

As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit

As a constant voltage reference in a power supply

E6C02: What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?

A logic-low state

The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states

Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6D08: What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?

Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability

Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value

Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling capacity

E6E04: What is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?

300 ohms

450 ohms

10 ohms

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier

A frequency modulated helium-neon laser

An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

E7A12: What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?

Reverse Logic

Assertive Logic

Positive Logic

E7B09: Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?

The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current

The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current

The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current

E7C12: Which of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?

A Phase Inverter Load network

A network with only three discrete parts

A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D09: What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It resonates at the ripple frequency

It provides fixed bias for Q1

It decouples the output

E7E14: What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator

Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for compilers

E7F11: What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

It can run on battery power for remote measurements

It does not require an expensive high-precision time base

It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter

E7G01: What primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?

The values of capacitors and resistors built into the op-amp

The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply

The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7H17: Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?

It generates FM sidebands

It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator

It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature phase synchronization

E8A14: Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

Harmonic regeneration

Level shifting

Phase reversal

E8B03: What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

0.3

3000

1000

E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?

Amplitude compandored single sideband

AMTOR

Time-domain frequency modulation

E8D01: Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

RMS voltage

Average voltage

DC voltage

E9A12: Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

The standing-wave ratio

Distance from the transmitter

Take-off angle

E9B01: In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

75 degrees

25 degrees

30 degrees

E9C05: What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

The antenna has a very narrow operating bandwidth

The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal

The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type

E9D09: What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

Lower Q

Greater structural strength

Higher losses

E9E11: What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?

Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the antenna and feed line

Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals

E9F06: What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

15 meters

20 meters

71 meters

E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Resistance and voltage

Reactance and voltage

Voltage and impedance

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure

By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions