E0A05: What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

Microwaves are ionizing radiation

Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures

E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?

12 meter band

17 meter band

30 meter band

E1B09: Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station

Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

E1C02: What is meant by automatic control of a station?

A station operating with its output power controlled automatically

Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link

The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station

E1D03: What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space

E1E10: What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading

They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading

They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E1F04: Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline

A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline

A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E2A12: What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite

By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination

By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination

E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

10 KHz

15 KHz

20 KHz

E2C08: Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit

If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E2D04: What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?

To upload operational software for the transponder

To delay download of telemetry between satellites

To relay messages between satellites

E2E04: What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

One of the signal filters has saturated

The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency

The mark and space signal have been inverted

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location

Use of high speed CW or digital modes

Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports

E3B02: What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

1000 miles

2500 miles

7500 miles

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South

East

West

E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

A wattmeter

A logic analyzer

A time-domain reflectometer

E4B05: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?

146.52 Hz

10 Hz

146.52 kHz

E4C06: A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

174 dBm

-164 dBm

-155 dBm

E4D05: What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz

146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz

173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz

E4E14: What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?

A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver

A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds

A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E5A11: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

157.8 Hz

315.6 Hz

23.67 kHz

E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

Voltage and current are in phase

Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

E5C04: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees

240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees

500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees

E5D04: What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?

Coulomb

Watt

Volt

E6A09: What is a depletion-mode FET?

An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

Any FET without a channel

Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E6B02: What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

Much higher reverse voltage breakdown

Controlled reverse avalanche voltage

Enhanced carrier retention time

E6C08: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

1

3

4

E6D02: Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?

The heater voltage

The operating temperature

The operating frequency

E6E01: What is a crystal lattice filter?

A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals

An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals

A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals

E6F01: What is photoconductivity?

The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy

The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy

The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

E7A02: How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

None

One

Four

E7B19: What is a klystron?

A high speed multivibrator

An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube

An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability

E7C14: Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

Meteor Scatter

Single-Sideband voice

Video

E7D17: What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

The inverter design does not require any output filtering

It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output

It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create "free power" from the unused portion of the AC cycle

E7E08: What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?

Two and four times the original frequency

The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies

1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp

A marker generator

A flip-flop

E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

28

7

0.07

E7H01: What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

Taft, Pierce and negative feedback

Pierce, Fenner and Beane

Taft, Hartley and Pierce

E8A12: What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

Human speech

Video signals

Data

E8B07: When using a pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than its average power?

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator

The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated

E8C02: What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code

Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes

E8D09: What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape

Waves that circle the Earth

Waves produced by a loop antenna

E9A14: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

6.17 dB

12.5 dB

14.15 dB

E9B13: What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

Next Element Comparison

National Electrical Code

Numeric Electrical Computation

E9C12: When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength

It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground

It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well

It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies

It must be neutralized

E9E10: Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable

Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna

E9F13: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

Very low impedance

The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

The same as the generator output impedance

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis

The current axis

The voltage axis

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure

By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions