Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A07: How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
By the odor
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
By the yellowish appearance of the gas
E1A07: What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?
12 meter band
17 meter band
30 meter band
60 meter band
E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below
E1C03: How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
Under local control there is no control operator
Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
Under automatic control there is no control operator
Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
E1D10: Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any amateur station designated by NASA
Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
All of these choices are correct
E1E07: What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyones examination and close the session
E1F09: Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
All of these choices are correct
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
E2C12: What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
Switch to a higher frequency HF band
Switch to a lower frequency HF band
Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
E2D10: How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
All of these choices are correct
E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B10: What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight, D-layer absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
E3C02: What is the cause of Aurora activity?
The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
The interaction of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
E4A07: Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
All of these choices are correct
E4B03: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz
E4C07: What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
The meter display sensitivity
The minimum discernible signal
The multiplex distortion stability
The maximum detectable spectrum
E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
E5A02: What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
The highest frequency that will pass current
The lowest frequency that will pass current
The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
E5D18: How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA?
704 W
355 W
252 W
1.42 mW
E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
The change in collector current with respect to base current
The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
The switching speed of the transistor
E6B06: Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
As balanced mixers in FM generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector
E6C10: In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
1
2
3
4
E6D14: Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
It can be used to make an audio delay line
It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
It samples and stores analog signals
E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current
E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes unstable
E7A15: What is a D flip-flop?
A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
A dynamic memory storage element
A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions
E7B12: What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier
E7C08: What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A crystal-lattice filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
A phase-inverting filter
E7D16: When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should resistors be connected across each capacitor?
To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each capacitor
To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the supply is off
To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at light loads
All of these choices are correct
E7E07: What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?
A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop
E7G11: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
E7H08: What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
An oscillator based on the negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect
E8A03: What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?
Approximately 13 Hz
Approximately 26 Hz
Approximately 52 Hz
Approximately 104 Hz
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A13: How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
3.85 dB
6.0 dB
8.15 dB
2.79 dB
E9B04: What may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within the band for which it was designed?
Feed point impedance may become negative
The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
Element spacing limits could be exceeded
The gain may change depending on frequency
E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases
E9D04: Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?
In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite
E9E06: 3-element Yagi?
Pi network
Pi-L network
L network
Parallel-resonant tank
E9F04: What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid polyethylene dielectric?
2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10
E9G11: How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
E9H01: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
1977 watts
78.7 watts
420 watts
286 watts
