Ham Extra License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50
E0A01: What, if any, are the differences between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic energy radiated by an antenna?
There is no significant difference between the two types of radiation
Only radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
Radioactive materials emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause heating
Radiation from an antenna will damage unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause this problem
E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?
The exact lower band edge
300 Hz above the lower band edge
1 kHz above the lower band edge
3 kHz above the lower band edge
E1B12: What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?
.5
1.0
2.0
3.0
E1C09: Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
18.110 - 18.168 MHz
24.940 - 24.990 MHz
10.100 - 10.150 MHz
29.500 - 29.700 MHz
E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class
E1E05: What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
Minimum passing score of 70%
Minimum passing score of 74%
Minimum passing score of 80%
Minimum passing score of 77%
E1F10: What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
1 W
1.5 W
10 W
1.5 kW
E2A08: Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
E2B10: Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
3 KHz
10 KHz
15 KHz
20 KHz
E2C12: What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
Switch to a higher frequency HF band
Switch to a lower frequency HF band
Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
E2D12: How does JT65 improve EME communications?
It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
All of these choices are correct
E2E03: How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
E3A01: What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the Moon
E3B09: At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
At sunrise and sunset
When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
E3C03: Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
In the F1-region
In the F2-region
In the D-region
In the E-region
E4A04: Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
E4B04: If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
E4C14: On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
13.845 MHz
14.755 MHz
14.445 MHz
15.210 MHz
E4D10: What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
E4E09: What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
FM signals can no longer be demodulated
E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance
E5B09: What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
Voltage and current are in phase
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
E5C08: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
E5D09: What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?
It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
E6A07: In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
1
2
4
5
E6B13: What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
E6C13: Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
All of these choices are correct
E6D10: What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
E6E07: Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
Ground-plane construction
Microstrip construction
Point-to-point construction
Wave-soldering construction
E6F06: Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
E7A06: What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
E7B13: In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
Emitter load
Fixed bias
Collector load
Voltage regulation
E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?
An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter
E7D06: What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?
It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
It provides D1 with current
E7E06: Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
To reduce impulse noise reception
For higher efficiency
To remove third-order distortion products
E7F01: What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
E7G14: What is the typical input impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
E7H02: What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
It must have at least two stages
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback with a gain greater than 1
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal
E8A01: What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
A tangent wave
E8B01: What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
E8C08: What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?
Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication
E8D05: If an RMS-reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
E9A05: Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
Transmission-line length
Antenna height, conductor length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
Constant feed point impedance
Sunspot activity and time of day
E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?
Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
E9C01: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A cardioid
Omnidirectional
A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
E9D05: Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node
E9E08: Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?
An SWR less than 1:1
A reflection coefficient greater than 1
A dielectric constant greater than 1
An SWR greater than 1:1
E9F07: How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
Lower loss
Higher SWR
Smaller reflection coefficient
Lower velocity factor
E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
E9H12: What is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
