Ham Extra License Practice Quiz

• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A10: What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?

Polychlorinated biphenyls
Polymorphic silicon

E1A06: Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?

Working DX is not permitted
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
Operation is restricted to LSB
All of these choices are correct

E1B11: What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

At least 43 dB below
At least 53 dB below
At least 63 dB below
At least 73 dB below

E1C06: Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
A control operator need not be present at the control point
A control operator must be present at the control point
Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E1D05: What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

All except Technician Class
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
All classes
Only Amateur Extra Class

E1E04: Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

E1F03: Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E2A09: What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
Which sideband to use

E2B05: Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm

E2D01: Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?


E2E06: What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?

48 baud
110 baud
300 baud
1200 baud

E3A10: Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
Use of high speed CW or digital modes
Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
All of these choices are correct

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?


E3C08: What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?

Oblique-angle ray
Pedersen ray
Ordinary ray
Heaviside ray

E4A08: Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

A spectrum analyzer
A Q meter
An ohmmeter
An antenna analyzer

E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz

E4D07: Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

A large increase in background noise
A reduction in apparent signal strength
The desired signal can no longer be heard
The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal

E4E11: Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective

E5A05: What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?


E5B06: How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?

4.50 seconds
9 seconds
450 seconds
900 seconds

E5C07: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?

31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees

E5D08: What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?

Electromechanical energy
Potential energy
Thermodynamic energy
Kinetic energy

E6A12: Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages

E6B01: What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E6C12: What is BiCMOS logic?

A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors

E6D01: What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?

The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off

E6E05: Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

2 dB
-10 dB
44 dBm
-20 dBm

E6F03: What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

A lens and a photomultiplier
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor

E7A09: D. It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic "1"?

It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"

E7B06: Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?

Class C
Class AB

E7C09: What type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB signal?

An adaptive filter
A notch filter
A Hilbert-transform filter
An elliptical filter

E7D03: What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
A varactor diode

E7E09: What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated

E7F02: Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal's frequency by a factor of ten?

A preamp
A prescaler
A marker generator
A flip-flop

E7G10: What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?


E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

E8A01: What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
A tangent wave

E8B02: How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

E8C05: What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

Approximately 13 Hz
Approximately 26 Hz
Approximately 52 Hz
Approximately 104 Hz

E8D04: What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts

E9A02: How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an isotropic antenna?

1.55 dB
2.15 dB
3.05 dB
4.30 dB

E9B09: What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

Graphical analysis
Method of Moments
Mutual impedance analysis
Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

E9C11: How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?

The low-angle radiation decreases
The high-angle radiation increases
Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
The low-angle radiation increases

E9D13: What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

E9E03: What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

The gamma match
The delta match
The omega match
The stub match

E9F10: What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

E9G07: On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis

E9H02: What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

317 watts
2000 watts
126 watts
300 watts