Ham General License Practice Quiz
• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 454
G0A01: What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
It heats body tissue
It causes radiation poisoning
It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
It cools body tissue
G0A02: Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?
Its duty cycle
Its frequency
Its power density
All of these choices are correct
G0A03: How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
By calculation based on computer modeling
By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
All of these choices are correct
G0A04: What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?
The average time of day when the exposure occurs
The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
The total time of the exposure
The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
G0A05: What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?
Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
All of these choices are correct
G0A07: What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?
A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
G0A08: Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?
Post a copy of FCC Part 97 in the station
Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
All of these choices are correct
G0A09: What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?
A receiver with an S meter
A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna
A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms
An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
G0A10: What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization
Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
G0A11: What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
No special precautions are necessary if SSB and CW are the only modes used
G0A12: What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
Wear a radiation badge
All of these choices are correct
G0A13: What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
It should not be installed higher than you can reach
It should not be installed in a wet area
It should limited to 10 feet in height
It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess of maximum permissible limits
G0B01: Which wire or wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a device operated from a 240-VAC single-phase source?
Only the hot wires
Only the neutral wire
Only the ground wire
All wires
G0B02: What is the minimum wire size that may be safely used for a circuit that draws up to 20 amperes of continuous current?
AWG number 20
AWG number 16
AWG number 12
AWG number 8
G0B03: Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
100 amperes
60 amperes
30 amperes
15 amperes
G0B04: Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?
Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
Danger of engine over torque
Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
G0B05: Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?
Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
Over-voltage on the hot wire
All of these choices are correct
G0B06: Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
It prevents blowing of fuses in case of an internal short circuit
It prevents signal overload
It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
G0B07: Which of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness?
Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the hook opening away from the tower
Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
Make sure that your belt is grounded at all times
G0B08: What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
Unground the base of the tower
All of these choices are correct
G0B09: Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
The resistance of solder is too high
Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
G0B10: Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling
High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
Tin in the solder can 'cold flow' causing shorts in the circuit
RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
G0B11: Which of the following is good engineering practice for lightning protection grounds?
They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
They must be bonded together with all other grounds
G0B12: What is the purpose of a transmitter power supply interlock?
To prevent unauthorized access to a transmitter
To guarantee that you cannot accidentally transmit out of band
To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
To shut off the transmitter if too much current is drawn
G0B13: What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?
Disconnect the incoming utility power feed
Insure that the generator is not grounded
Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnected
All of these choices are correct
G0B14: Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
Acceptable bandwidth limits
Acceptable modulation limits
Electrical safety inside the ham shack
RF exposure limits of the human body
G0B15: Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
The generator should be located in a well ventilated area
The generator should be insulated from ground
Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
All of these choices are correct
G0B16: When might a lead acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas?
When stored for long periods of time
When being discharged
When being charged
When not placed on a level surface
G1A01: On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?
60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters
160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
G1A02: On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
160 meters
30 meters
17 meters
12 meters
G1A03: On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
160 meters
30 meters
20 meters
12 meters
G1A04: Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
11 meters
12 meters
30 meters
60 meters
G1A05: Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band?
7.250 MHz
7.500 MHz
40.200 MHz
40.500 MHz
G1A06: Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band?
3.940 MHz
12.940 MHz
17.940 MHz
24.940 MHz
G1A07: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 75 meter phone band?
1875 kHz
3750 kHz
3900 kHz
4005 kHz
G1A08: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20 meter phone band?
14005 kHz
14105 kHz
14305 kHz
14405 kHz
G1A09: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80 meter band?
1855 kHz
2560 kHz
3560 kHz
3650 kHz
G1A10: Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 15 meter band?
14250 kHz
18155 kHz
21300 kHz
24900 kHz
G1A11: Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
28.020 MHz
28.350 MHz
28.550 MHz
All of these choices are correct
G1A12: When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
The lower frequency end
The upper frequency end
The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
G1A13: Which, if any, amateur band is shared with the Citizens Radio Service?
10 meters
12 meters
15 meters
None
G1A14: Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?
Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band
G1A15: What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?
Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference
Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
Move to a clear frequency
G1B01: What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
50 feet
100 feet
200 feet
300 feet
G1B02: With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
A beacon station may not use automatic control
The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
The frequency must be posted on the Internet or published in a national periodical
There must be no more than one beacon signal in the same band from a single location
G1B03: Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC Rules?
Observation of propagation and reception
Automatic identification of repeaters
Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
Identifying net frequencies
G1B04: Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of
The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
All of these choices are correct
G1B05: When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?
At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter
When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
G1B06: When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?
During a declared communications emergency
To control a space station
Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature
Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
G1B07: What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?
Only "Q" codes are permitted
They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
They are not permitted
Only "10 codes" are permitted
G1B08: When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions
Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
Before transmitting, listen to avoid interfering with ongoing communication
All of these choices are correct
G1B09: When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
Never
G1B10: What is the power limit for beacon stations?
10 watts PEP output
20 watts PEP output
100 watts PEP output
200 watts PEP output
G1B11: How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?
In conformance with the rules of the IARU
In conformance with Amateur Radio custom
In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice
All of these choices are correct
G1B12: Who or what determines 'good engineering and good amateur practice' as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
The FCC
The Control Operator
The IEEE
The ITU
G1C01: What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output
G1C02: What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?
1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion
200 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
An effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half-wave dipole
G1C03: What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations when transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60 meter band?
2.8 kHz
5.6 kHz
1.8 kHz
3 kHz
G1C04: Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 14 MHz band?
Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts
G1C05: Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band?
100 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output
G1C06: Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on 1.8 MHz band?
200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1200 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
G1C07: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20 meter band?
56 kilobaud
19.6 kilobaud
1200 baud
300 baud
G1C08: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
56 kilobaud
19.6 kilobaud
1200 baud
300 baud
G1C09: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands?
56 kilobaud
19.6 kilobaud
1200 baud
300 baud
G1C10: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter band?
56 kilobaud
19.6 kilobaud
1200 baud
300 baud
G1C11: What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2 meter band?
56 kilobaud
19.6 kilobaud
1200 baud
300 baud
G1D01: Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?
Give your call sign followed by the words "General Class"
No special identification is needed
Give your call sign followed by "slant AG"
Give your call sign followed the abbreviation 'CSCE'
G1D02: What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?
General and Technician
General only
Technician only
Extra, General and Technician
G1D03: On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician Class operator and have a CSCE for General Class privileges?
Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted on the FCC database
Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mail
On any General or Technician Class band segment
On any General or Technician Class band segment except 30 and 60 meters
G1D04: Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited
At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present
G1D05: Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination?
Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
Receipt of a CSCE for General Class
Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
An FCC General Class or higher license and VEC accreditation
G1D06: When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site?
Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC
G1D07: Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
The Federal Communications Commission
The Universal Licensing System
A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
G1D08: Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General Class or above
The person's home citizenship must be in the ITU 2 region
None of these choices is correct; non-U.S. citizens cannot be volunteer examiners
G1D09: How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
30 days
180 days
365 days
For as long as your current license is valid
G1D10: What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
12 years
18 years
21 years
There is no age limit
G1E01: Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?
The third party's amateur license had ever been revoked
The third party is not a U.S. citizen
The third party is a licensed amateur
The third party is speaking in a language other than English, French, or Spanish
G1E02: When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
Under no circumstances
Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
G1E03: In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
Region 1
Region 2
Region 3
All three regions
G1E04: Which of the following conditions require an Amateur Radio station licensee to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
All of these choices are correct
G1E05: What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?
Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
Only messages for other licensed amateurs
Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
G1E06: Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?
The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference
G1E07: With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
Countries in ITU Region 2
Countries in ITU Region 1
Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)
G1E08: Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign Amateur Radio station from a station with an FCC granted license at which a licensed control operator is present?
Information must be exchanged in English
The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement
The control operator must have at least a General Class license
All of these choices are correct
G1E09: What language must you use when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission?
The language being used for the contact
Any language if the US has a third party agreement with that country
English
Any language of a country that is a member of the ITU
G1E10: What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?
The entire band
The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
The portion above 29.5 MHz
G2A01: Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Vestigial sideband
Double sideband
G2A02: Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?
Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Vestigial sideband
Double sideband
G2A03: Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Vestigial sideband
Double sideband
G2A04: Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?
Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Vestigial sideband
Double sideband
G2A05: Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the high frequency amateur bands?
Frequency modulation
Double sideband
Single sideband
Phase modulation
G2A06: Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
Very high fidelity voice modulation
Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency
Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)
G2A07: Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode?
Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode
SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands
G2A08: Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations
Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response
Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
G2A09: Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands?
Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands
G2A10: Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?
The received signal is more natural sounding
VOX allows "hands free" operation
Frequency spectrum is conserved
Provides more power output
G2A11: What does the expression "CQ DX" usually indicate?
A general call for any station
The caller is listening for a station in Germany
The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
A distress call
G2B01: Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
Nets always have priority
QSO's in process always have priority
No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide
Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
G2B02: What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
Change to a different frequency
Immediately cease all transmissions
G2B03: If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?
Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency
Increase power to overcome interference
G2B04: When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation should you allow in order to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
5 to 50 Hz
150 to 500 Hz
1 to 3 kHz
3 to 6 kHz
G2B05: What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
Between 150 and 500 Hz
Approximately 3 kHz
Approximately 6 kHz
Approximately 10 kHz
G2B06: What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?
Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response
Send 'QSY' on CW or if using phone, announce 'the frequency is in use', then send your call and listen for a response
G2B07: Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
All of these choices are correct
G2B08: What is the 'DX window' in a voluntary band plan?
A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment
An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
G2B09: Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license
Only a RACES net control operator
A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
G2B10: When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
When the President's War Emergency Powers have been invoked
G2B11: What frequency should be used to send a distress call?
Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services
G2B12: When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?
Only when transmitting in RACES
At any time when transmitting in an organized net
At any time during an actual emergency
Only on authorized HF frequencies
G2C01: Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?
Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
G2C02: What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?
Send slower
Change frequency
Increase your power
Repeat everything twice
G2C03: What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
Listening for novice stations
Operating full break-in
Listening only for a specific station or stations
Closing station now
G2C04: What does it mean when a CW operator sends "CL" at the end of a transmission?
Keep frequency clear
Operating full break-in
Listening only for a specific station or stations
Closing station
G2C05: What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code?
The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
The speed at which the CQ was sent
A slow speed until contact is established
5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed
G2C06: What does the term 'zero beat' mean in CW operation?
Matching the speed of the transmitting station
Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
Sending without error
Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal.
G2C07: When sending CW, what does a 'C' mean when added to the RST report?
Chirpy or unstable signal
Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated
100 percent copy
Key clicks
G2C08: What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
SK
BK
AR
KN
G2C09: What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?
Send slower
We have already confirmed by card
I acknowledge receipt
We have worked before
G2C10: What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
Slow down
Send faster
Zero beat my signal
Quitting operation
G2C11: What does the Q signal 'QRV' mean?
You are sending too fast
There is interference on the frequency
I am quitting for the day
I am ready to receive messages
G2D01: What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
G2D02: Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?
To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
To encourage amateur self regulation and compliance with the rules
To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
To provide emergency and public safety communications
G2D03: What skills learned during 'hidden transmitter hunts' are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?
Identification of out of band operation
Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules
Identification of different call signs
Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies
G2D04: Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
A world map that shows accurate land masses
A world map projection centered on a particular location
A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
G2D05: When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
G2D06: How is a directional antenna pointed when making a 'long-path' contact with another station?
Toward the rising Sun
Along the gray line
180 degrees from its short-path heading
Toward the north
G2D07: Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?
If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked
You must keep a log of all third party traffic
You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
G2D08: Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?
The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic
The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
G2D09: What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
Date and time of contact
Band and/or frequency of the contact
Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
All of these choices are correct
G2D10: What is QRP operation?
Remote piloted model control
Low power transmit operation
Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
Traffic relay procedure net operation
G2D11: Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
A quarter-wave vertical antenna
An isotropic antenna
A unidirectional antenna
An omnidirectional antenna
G2E01: Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
USB
DSB
CW
LSB
G2E02: How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?
The number varies
5
7
8
G2E03: What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
Directory
Preamble
Header
Footer
G2E04: What segment of the 20 meter band is most often used for data transmissions?
14.000 - 14.050 MHz
14.070 - 14.100 MHz
14.150 - 14.225 MHz
14.275 - 14.350 MHz
G2E05: Which of the following describes Baudot code?
A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
A code using error detection and correction
A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
G2E06: What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
85 Hz
170 Hz
425 Hz
850 Hz
G2E07: What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
Returning to you
Radioteletype
A general call to all digital stations
Repeater transmission type
G2E08: What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions?
3570 ' 3600 kHz
3500 ' 3525 kHz
3700 ' 3750 kHz
3775 ' 3825 kHz
G2E09: In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz
In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
G2E10: What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?
It is much higher speed than RTTY
It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes
It has built-in error correction
It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction
G2E11: What does the abbreviation "MFSK" stand for?
Manual Frequency Shift Keying
Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying
Manual Frequency Sideband Keying
Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying
G2E12: How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?
Terminates the contact
Requests the packet be retransmitted
Sends the packet back to the transmitting station
Requests a change in transmitting protocol
G2E13: In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted
The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
The receiver is busy decoding the packet
The entire file has been received correctly
G3A01: What is the sunspot number?
A measure of solar activity based on counting sunspots and sunspot groups
A 3 digit identifier which is used to track individual sunspots
A measure of the radio flux from the Sun measured at 10.7 cm
A measure of the sunspot count based on radio flux measurements
G3A02: What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
G3A03: Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
28 days
1 to 2 hours
8 minutes
20 to 40 hours
G3A04: Which of the following amateur radio HF frequencies are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
3.5 MHz and lower
7 MHz
10 MHz
21 MHz and higher
G3A05: What is the solar-flux index?
A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on the Earth
A count of sunspots which is adjusted for solar emissions
Another name for the American sunspot number
A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 cm
G3A06: What is a geomagnetic storm?
A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
A thunderstorm which affects radio propagation
Ripples in the ionosphere
A temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere
G3A07: At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
At the summer solstice
Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
At any point in the solar cycle
G3A08: Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio-wave propagation?
Improved high-latitude HF propagation
Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
Improved ground-wave propagation
Improved chances of UHF ducting
G3A09: What effect do high sunspot numbers have on radio communications?
High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
Microwave communications become unstable
G3A10: What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28-day cycle?
Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
Cyclic variation in the Earth's radiation belts
The Sun's rotation on its axis
The position of the Moon in its orbit
G3A11: Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
8 minutes
40 hours
28 days
11 years
G3A12: What does the K-index indicate?
The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
The short term stability of the Earth's magnetic field
The stability of the Sun's magnetic field
The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
G3A13: What does the A-index indicate?
The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
G3A14: How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?
HF communications are improved
HF communications are disturbed
VHF/UHF ducting is improved
VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
G3A15: How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio-wave propagation on the Earth?
28 days
14 days
4 to 8 minutes
20 to 40 hours
G3A16: What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
Aurora that can reflect VHF signals
Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
Improved HF long path propagation
Reduced long delayed echoes
G3B01: How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?
Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
Signal strength increased by 3 dB
The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
A well-defined echo might be heard
G3B02: Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6 meter band?
Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
Long skip sky-wave propagation on the 10 meter band
Severe attenuation of signals on the 10 meter band
Long delayed echoes on the 10 meter band
G3B03: Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?
Select a frequency just below the MUF
Select a frequency just above the LUF
Select a frequency just below the critical frequency
Select a frequency just above the critical frequency
G3B04: What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?
Listen for signals from an international beacon
Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
Check the strength of TV signals from Western Europe
Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band
G3B05: What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
They are bent back to the Earth
They pass through the ionosphere
They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
G3B06: What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF)?
They are bent back to the Earth
They pass through the ionosphere
They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth
G3B07: What does LUF stand for?
The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
G3B08: What does MUF stand for?
The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
G3B09: What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
180 miles
1,200 miles
2,500 miles
12,000 miles
G3B10: What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?
180 miles
1,200 miles
2,500 miles
12,000 miles
G3B11: What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path
HF communications over the path are enhanced
Double hop propagation along the path is more common
Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
G3B12: What factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
Path distance and location
Time of day and season
Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
All of these choices are correct
G3C01: Which of the following ionospheric layers is closest to the surface of the Earth?
The D layer
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
G3C02: Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
Where the Sun is overhead
Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth
Where the Sun is rising
Where the Sun has just set
G3C03: Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?
Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
Because it is the highest ionospheric region
All of these choices are correct
G3C04: What does the term 'critical angle' mean as used in radio wave propagation?
The long path azimuth of a distant station
The short path azimuth of a distant station
The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
G3C05: Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during the day?
The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
G3C06: What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
They have high intelligibility
They have a wavering sound
They have very large swings in signal strength
All of these choices are correct
G3C07: What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
The E-region is not present
Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
G3C08: Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere which is not a good reflector
Propagation is through ground waves which absorb most of the signal energy
Propagations is through ducts in F region which absorb most of the energy
G3C09: What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
Faraday rotation
Scatter
Sporadic-E skip
Short-path skip
G3C10: Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?
The communication is during a sunspot maximum
The communication is during a sudden ionospheric disturbance
The signal is heard on a frequency below the Maximum Usable Frequency
The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency
G3C11: Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
Vertical antennas
Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
Left-hand circularly polarized antennas
Right-hand circularly polarized antenna
G3C12: Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
The F2 layer
The F1 layer
The E layer
The D layer
G3C13: What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation?
Propagation near the MUF
Short distance HF propagation using high elevation angles
Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
Double hop propagation near the LUF
G4A01: What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
G4A02: What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?
Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
Accidental out of band operation can be prevented
G4A03: What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
The radio is operating at half power
The transceiver is operating from an external power source
The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation
G4A04: What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?
A pronounced peak
A pronounced dip
No change will be observed
A slow, rhythmic oscillation
G4A05: What is a purpose of using Automatic Level Control (ALC) with a RF power amplifier?
To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
To reduce harmonic radiation
To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
To increase overall efficiency
G4A06: What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?
Balanced modulator
SWR Bridge
Antenna coupler
Q Multiplier
G4A07: What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier?
Exceeding the Maximum Usable Frequency
Low input SWR
Shorting the input signal to ground
Excessive drive power
G4A08: What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
Minimum SWR on the antenna
Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
G4A09: Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?
To prevent stations from talking over each other
To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations
G4A10: What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
Automatic transmit/receive switching
Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
VOX operation
Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
G4A11: Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?
To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
To change frequency rapidly
To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
G4A12: Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
To permit ease of monitoring the transmit and receive frequencies when they are not the same
To facilitate computer interface
G4A13: What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?
To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
To slow down received CW signals for better copy
G4A14: How should the transceiver audio input be adjusted when transmitting PSK31 data signals?
So that the transceiver is at maximum rated output power
So that the transceiver ALC system does not activate
So that the transceiver operates at no more than 25% of rated power
So that the transceiver ALC indicator shows half scale
G4B01: What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
An ohmmeter
A signal generator
An ammeter
An oscilloscope
G4B02: Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
An oscilloscope uses less power
Complex impedances can be easily measured
Input impedance is much lower
Complex waveforms can be measured
G4B03: Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
An oscilloscope
A field-strength meter
A sidetone monitor
A wavemeter
G4B04: What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
The local oscillator of the transmitter
An external RF oscillator
The transmitter balanced mixer output
The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
G4B05: Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
It improves the frequency response
It decreases battery consumption in the meter
It improves the resolution of the readings
It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
G4B06: What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?
Better for measuring computer circuits
Better for RF measurements
Better precision for most uses
Faster response
G4B07: Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?
Close-in radio direction-finding
A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter
An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter
A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter
G4B08: Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A field-strength meter
An antenna noise bridge
A multimeter
A Q meter
G4B09: Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
The radiation resistance of an antenna
The radiation pattern of an antenna
The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter
G4B10: Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
Standing wave ratio
Antenna front-to-back ratio
RF interference
Radio wave propagation
G4B11: Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
Receiver
Transmitter
Antenna and feed line
All of these choices are correct
G4B12: What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?
SWR readings may be incorrect if the antenna is too close to the Earth
Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
G4B13: What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
Determining the gain of a directional antenna
G4B14: What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a numerical digital readout?
When testing logic circuits
When high precision is desired
When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
When adjusting tuned circuits
G4B15: What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?
Linearity
Carrier and undesired sideband suppression
Percentage of frequency modulation
Percentage of carrier phase shift
G4B16: What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90-degrees
Two non-harmonically related audio signals
Two swept frequency tones
Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
G4C01: Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio-frequency devices?
Bypass inductor
Bypass capacitor
Forward-biased diode
Reverse-biased diode
G4C02: Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
Arcing at a poor electrical connection
The use of horizontal rather than vertical antennas
G4C03: What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?
A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
On-and-off humming or clicking
Distorted speech
Clearly audible speech
G4C04: What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?
On-and-off humming or clicking
A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
A chirpy CW signal
Severely distorted audio
G4C05: What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
The ground rod is resonant
The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
G4C06: What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?
Overheating of ground straps
Corrosion of the ground rod
High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
A ground loop
G4C07: What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
Connect all equipment grounds together
Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
Use a ground loop for best conductivity
Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station
G4C08: Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
Placing a ferrite bead around the cable
Adding series capacitors to the conductors
Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
G4C09: How can a ground loop be avoided?
Connect all ground conductors in series
Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
Connect all ground conductors to a single point
G4C10: What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
G4C11: Which of the following is one use for a Digital Signal Processor in an amateur station?
To provide adequate grounding
To remove noise from received signals
To increase antenna gain
To increase antenna bandwidth
G4C12: Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog filter?
A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
Fewer digital components are required
Mixing products are greatly reduced
The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
G4C13: Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
Band-pass tuning
A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter
Balanced mixing
A noise limiter
G4D01: What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals
Prevent distortion of voice signals
Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation
G4D02: Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?
It increases peak power
It increases average power
It reduces harmonic distortion
It reduces intermodulation distortion
G4D03: Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
Distorted speech
Splatter
Excessive background pickup
All of these choices are correct
G4D04: What does an S meter measure?
Conductance
Impedance
Received signal strength
Transmitter power output
G4D05: How does an S meter reading of 20 dB over S-9 compare to an S-9 signal, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
It is 10 times weaker
It is 20 times weaker
It is 20 times stronger
It is 100 times stronger
G4D06: Where is an S meter found?
In a receiver
In an SWR bridge
In a transmitter
In a conductance bridge
G4D07: How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
Approximately 1.5 times
Approximately 2 times
Approximately 4 times
Approximately 8 times
G4D08: What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
7.178 to 7.181 MHz
7.178 to 7.184 MHz
7.175 to 7.178 MHz
7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
G4D09: What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
14.347 to 14.647 MHz
14.347 to 14.350 MHz
14.344 to 14.347 MHz
14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz
G4D10: How close to the lower'edge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide'LSB?
3 kHz above the edge of the segment
3 kHz below the edge of the segment
Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
Center your signal on the edge of the segment
G4D11: How close to the upper edge of the 20 meter General Class band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide'USB?
3 kHz above the edge of the band
3 kHz below the edge of the band
Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the band
Center your signal on the edge of the band
G4E01: What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?
A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna
A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna
A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna
G4E02: What is the purpose of a "corona ball" on a HF mobile antenna?
To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
To increase the "Q" of the antenna
To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna
G4E03: Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
To the battery using heavy gauge wire
To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
To the battery using resistor wire
To the alternator or generator using resistor wire
G4E04: Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver from an automobile's auxiliary power socket?
The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current being drawn by the
The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF
Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
G4E05: Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75 meter band?
'Picket Fencing' signal variation
The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
The antenna system
FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75 meter band
G4E06: What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna?
Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
Short antennas can only receive vertically polarized signals
Operating bandwidth may be very limited
Harmonic radiation may increase
G4E07: Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
The battery charging system
The anti-lock braking system
The anti-theft circuitry
The vehicle control computer
G4E08: What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?
Photovoltaic conversion
Photon emission
Photosynthesis
Photon decomposition
G4E09: What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well-illuminated photovoltaic cell?
0.02 VDC
0.5 VDC
0.2 VDC
1.38 VDC
G4E10: What is the reason a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
The diode prevents self discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination
G4E11: Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
All of these choices are correct
G5A01: What is impedance?
The electric charge stored by a capacitor
The inverse of resistance
The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit
The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
G5A02: What is reactance?
Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
G5A03: Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
Conductance
Reluctance
Admittance
Reactance
G5A04: Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
Conductance
Reluctance
Reactance
Admittance
G5A05: How does an inductor react to AC?
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
G5A06: How does a capacitor react to AC?
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
G5A07: What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?
The source delivers minimum power to the load
The electrical load is shorted
No current can flow through the circuit
The source can deliver maximum power to the load
G5A08: Why is impedance matching important?
So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
So the load will draw minimum power from the source
To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit
To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal
G5A09: What unit is used to measure reactance?
Farad
Ohm
Ampere
Siemens
G5A10: What unit is used to measure impedance?
Volt
Ohm
Ampere
Watt
G5A11: Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?
Insert an LC network between the two circuits
Reduce the power output of the first circuit
Increase the power output of the first circuit
Insert a circulator between the two circuits
G5A13: Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
A transformer
A Pi-network
A length of transmission line
All of these choices are correct
G5B01: A two-times increase or decrease in power results in a change of how many dB?
Approximately 2 dB
Approximately 3 dB
Approximately 6 dB
Approximately 12 dB
G5B02: How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit?
It equals the average of each branch current
It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
G5B03: How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
0.5 watts
200 watts
400 watts
3200 watts
G5B04: How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
2.4 watts
24 watts
6 watts
60 watts
G5B05: How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms?
Approximately 61 milliwatts
Approximately 61 watts
Approximately 11 milliwatts
Approximately 11 watts
G5B06: What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?
1.4 watts
100 watts
353.5 watts
400 watts
G5B07: Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
The peak-to-peak value
The peak value
The RMS value
The reciprocal of the RMS value
G5B08: What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
84.8 volts
169.7 volts
240.0 volts
339.4 volts
G5B09: What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
8.5 volts
12 volts
24 volts
34 volts
G5B10: What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
10.9%
12.2%
20.5%
25.9%
G5B11: What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
.707
1.00
1.414
2.00
G5B12: What would be the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
173 volts
245 volts
346 volts
692 volts
G5B13: What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?
530 watts
1060 watts
1500 watts
2120 watts
G5B14: What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?
8.75 watts
625 watts
2500 watts
5000 watts
G5C01: What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
Capacitive coupling
Displacement current coupling
Mutual inductance
Mutual capacitance
G5C02: Which part of a transformer is normally connected to the incoming source of energy?
The secondary
The primary
The core
The plates
G5C03: Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance?
A resistor in parallel
A resistor in series
A capacitor in series
A capacitor in parallel
G5C04: What is the total resistance of three 100-ohm resistors in parallel?
.30 ohms
.33 ohms
33.3 ohms
300 ohms
G5C05: If three equal value resistors in parallel produce 50 ohms of resistance, and the same three resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
1500 ohms
90 ohms
150 ohms
175 ohms
G5C06: What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
2370 volts
540 volts
26.7 volts
5.9 volts
G5C07: What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?
12.2 to 1
24.4 to 1
150 to 1
300 to 1
G5C08: What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 picofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
576.9 picofarads
1733 picofarads
3583 picofarads
10750 picofarads
G5C09: What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?
.30 microfarads
.33 microfarads
33.3 microfarads
300 microfarads
G5C10: What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
.30 Henrys
3.3 Henrys
3.3 millihenrys
30 millihenrys
G5C11: What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?
.07 millihenrys
14.3 millihenrys
70 millihenrys
1000 millihenrys
G5C12: What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?
.07 microfarads
14.3 microfarads
70 microfarads
1000 microfarads
G5C13: Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
An inductor in series
A resistor in series
A capacitor in parallel
A capacitor in series
G5C14: Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
A capacitor in series
A resistor in parallel
An inductor in parallel
An inductor in series
G5C15: What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?
5.9 ohms
0.17 ohms
10000 ohms
80 ohms
G6A01: Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply?
Low equivalent series resistance
High equivalent series resistance
Low Temperature coefficient
High Temperature coefficient
G6A02: Which of the following types of capacitors are often used in power supply circuits to filter the rectified AC?
Disc ceramic
Vacuum variable
Mica
Electrolytic
G6A03: Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
Tight tolerance
High stability
High capacitance for given volume
Comparatively low cost
G6A04: Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
Tight tolerance
Non-polarized
High capacitance for given volume
Inexpensive RF capacitor
G6A05: Which of the following is one effect of lead inductance in a capacitor used at VHF and above?
Effective capacitance may be reduced
Voltage rating may be reduced
ESR may be reduced
The polarity of the capacitor might become reversed
G6A06: What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?
It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
It will stay the same
It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
It will become time dependent
G6A07: Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
The resistor could overheat
The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
G6A08: Which of the following describes a thermistor?
A resistor that is resistant to changes in value with temperature variations
A device having a specific change in resistance with temperature variations
A special type of transistor for use at very cold temperatures
A capacitor that changes value with temperature
G6A09: What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
Large values of inductance may be obtained
The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
All of these choices are correct
G6A10: How should the winding axes of solenoid inductors be placed to minimize their mutual inductance?
In line
Parallel to each other
At right angles
Interleaved
G6A11: Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
To increase the energy transfer between circuits
To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits
To reduce conducted emissions
To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors
G6A12: What is a common name for an inductor used to help smooth the DC output from the rectifier in a conventional power supply?
Back EMF choke
Repulsion coil
Charging inductor
Filter choke
G6A13: What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
The magnetic field may become inverted
The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies
The permeability will increase
The voltage rating may be exceeded
G6B01: What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a rectifier?
The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting direction
1.4 times the AC frequency
The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting direction
2.8 times the AC frequency
G6B02: What are two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon diode rectifiers?
Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
Average power; average voltage
Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
Peak load impedance; peak voltage
G6B03: What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
0.1 volt
0.3 volts
0.7 volts
1.0 volts
G6B04: When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase current handling capacity, what is the purpose of the resistor connected in series with each diode?
To ensure the thermal stability of the power supply
To regulate the power supply output voltage
To ensure that one diode doesn't carry most of the current
To act as an inductor
G6B05: What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?
0.1 volt
0.3 volts
0.7 volts
1.0 volts
G6B06: Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit as compared to a standard silicon diode?
Lower capacitance
Lower inductance
Longer switching times
Higher breakdown voltage
G6B07: What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?
Its saturation and cut-off regions
Its active region (between the cut-off and saturation regions)
Its peak and valley current points
Its enhancement and deletion modes
G6B08: Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
To increase the beta of the transistor
To improve the power dissipation capability
To reduce stray capacitance
To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground
G6B09: Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?
The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
G6B10: Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
Control grid
Heater
Screen Grid
Trigger electrode
G6B11: Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
A bipolar transistor
A Field Effect Transistor
A tunnel diode
A varistor
G6B12: What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
To increase efficiency
To increase the control grid resistance
To decrease plate resistance
G6B13: What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
Long life
High discharge current
High voltage
Rapid recharge
G6B14: What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?
6 volts
8.5 volts
10.5 volts
12 volts
G6B15: When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell?
As long as the voltage has not been allowed to drop below 1.0 volt
When the cell is kept warm during the recharging period
When a constant current charger is used
Never
G6C01: Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit?
NAND Gate
Microprocessor
Frequency Counter
Linear voltage regulator
G6C02: What is meant by the term MMIC?
Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
Military-specification Manufactured Integrated Circuit
Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
G6C03: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
Low power consumption
High power handling capability
Better suited for RF amplification
Better suited for power supply regulation
G6C04: What is meant by the term ROM?
Resistor Operated Memory
Read Only Memory
Random Operational Memory
Resistant to Overload Memory
G6C05: What is meant when memory is characterized as 'non-volatile'?
It is resistant to radiation damage
It is resistant to high temperatures
The stored information is maintained even if power is removed
The stored information cannot be changed once written
G6C06: Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
Digital
MMIC
Programmable Logic
Analog
G6C07: What is one disadvantage of an incandescent indicator compared to an LED?
Low power consumption
High speed
Long life
High power consumption
G6C08: How is an LED biased when emitting light?
Beyond cutoff
At the Zener voltage
Reverse Biased
Forward Biased
G6C09: Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
It requires ambient or back lighting
It offers a wide dynamic range
It has a wide viewing angle
All of these choices are correct
G6C10: What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
Computer and transceiver
Microphone and transceiver
Amplifier and antenna
Power supply and amplifier
G6C11: What is a microprocessor?
A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
A computer on a single integrated circuit
A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage
G6C12: Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?
PL-259
Type N
Type SMA
DE-9
G6C13: Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
Octal
RJ-11
PL-259
DB-25
G6C14: Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
PL-259
BNC
RCA Phono
Type N
G6C15: What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types?
Prevention of use by unauthorized persons
Reduced chance of incorrect mating
Higher current carrying capacity
All of these choices are correct
G6C16: Which of the following describes a type-N connector?
A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
An audio connector used in surround-sound installations
G6C17: What is the general description of a DIN type connector?
A special connector for microwave interfacing
A DC power connector rated for currents between 30 and 50 amperes
A family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals
A special watertight connector for use in marine applications
G6C18: What is a type SMA connector?
A large bayonet-type connector usable at power levels in excess of 1 KW
A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
G7A01: What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
It discharges the filter capacitors
It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
It eliminates ground-loop current
G7A02: Which of the following components are used in a power-supply filter network?
Diodes
Transformers and transducers
Quartz crystals
Capacitors and inductors
G7A03: What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?
One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
G7A04: What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
G7A05: What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees
G7A06: What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees
G7A07: What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
A steady DC voltage
G7A08: Which of the following is an advantage of a switch-mode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
Fewer circuit components are required
High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
All of these choices are correct
G7A09: Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
Symbol 2
Symbol 5
Symbol 1
Symbol 4
G7A10: Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
Symbol 4
Symbol 1
Symbol 11
Symbol 5
G7A11: Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
Symbol 1
Symbol 2
Symbol 7
Symbol 11
G7A12: Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer?
Symbol 4
Symbol 7
Symbol 6
Symbol 1
G7A13: Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
Symbol 7
Symbol 11
Symbol 6
Symbol 1
G7B02: Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state
The binary number system is most accurate
Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
All of these choices are correct
G7B03: Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?
Output is high when either or both inputs are low
Output is high only when both inputs are high
Output is low when either or both inputs are high
Output is low only when both inputs are high
G7B04: Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
Output is high when either or both inputs are low
Output is high only when both inputs are high
Output is low when either or both inputs are high
Output is low only when both inputs are high
G7B05: How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
3
6
8
16
G7B06: What is a shift register?
A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
An array of operational amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations
A digital mixer
An analog mixer
G7B07: What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?
An amplifier and a divider
A frequency multiplier and a mixer
A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
G7B08: How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
Add the RF input power to the DC output power
G7B09: What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
The number of stages in the counter
The number of stages in the divider
The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
The time delay of the lag circuit
G7B10: Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?
Low standby power
High Efficiency
No need for bias
Low distortion
G7B11: For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
SSB
CW
AM
All of these choices are correct
G7B12: Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
Class A
Class B
Class AB
Class C
G7B13: What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
To limit the modulation index
To eliminate self-oscillations
To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
To keep the carrier on frequency
G7B14: Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
A Class C high efficiency amplifier
An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
G7C01: Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator and send them to the mixer in a single-sideband phone transmitter?
Carrier oscillator
Filter
IF amplifier
RF amplifier
G7C02: Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier and send the result to the filter in a typical single-sideband phone transmitter?
Discriminator
Detector
IF amplifier
Balanced modulator
G7C03: What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
Balanced modulator
IF amplifier
Mixer
Detector
G7C04: What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in a single-sideband receiver?
RF oscillator
IF filter
Balanced modulator
Product detector
G7C05: Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
Relatively high power output
Relatively low power consumption
Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
G7C06: What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
Substantially higher
About the same
Substantially lower
Twice the transmission line impedance
G7C07: What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
HF oscillator, mixer, detector
HF oscillator, pre-scaler, audio amplifier
G7C08: What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?
Product detector
Phase inverter
Mixer
Discriminator
G7C09: Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?
An analog to digital converter
A digital to analog converter
A digital processor chip
All of the these choices are correct
G7C10: How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
By using direct signal phasing
By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
By differential spurious phasing
By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products
G7C11: What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software
A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
G8A01: What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information?
Phase modulation
Frequency modulation
Spread spectrum modulation
Amplitude modulation
G8A02: What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?
Phase convolution
Phase modulation
Angle convolution
Radian inversion
G8A03: What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
Frequency convolution
Frequency transformation
Frequency conversion
Frequency modulation
G8A04: What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?
Multiplex modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude modulation
Pulse modulation
G8A05: What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
Frequency shift keying
Pulse position modulation
Frequency modulation
Amplitude modulation
G8A06: What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single-sideband phone transmission?
Audio fidelity is improved
Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion
The available transmitter power can be used more effectively
Simpler receiving equipment can be used
G8A07: Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
Single sideband
Double sideband
Phase modulation
Frequency modulation
G8A08: Which of the following is an effect of over-modulation?
Insufficient audio
Insufficient bandwidth
Frequency drift
Excessive bandwidth
G8A09: What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?
The RF clipping level
Transmit audio or microphone gain
Antenna inductance or capacitance
Attenuator level
G8A10: What is meant by flat-topping of a single-sideband phone transmission?
Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted
Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
G8A11: What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating audio signal is applied to an FM transmitter?
The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the amplitude and frequency of the modulating signal
The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the instantaneous frequency of the modulating signal
The carrier phase changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
G8A12: What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced modulator?
Both upper and lower sidebands
Either upper or lower sideband, but not both
Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier
The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier
G8B01: What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?
Mixer
BFO
VFO
Discriminator
G8B02: If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
Quadrature noise
Image response
Mixer interference
Intermediate interference
G8B03: What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
Heterodyning
Synthesizing
Cancellation
Phase inverting
G8B04: What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
Mixer
Reactance modulator
Pre-emphasis network
Multiplier
G8B05: Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?
The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels
The wide bandwidth is prohibited by FCC rules
The frequency stability would not be adequate
G8B06: What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency?
3 kHz
5 kHz
8 kHz
16 kHz
G8B07: What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter?
101.75 Hz
416.7 Hz
5 kHz
60 kHz
G8B08: Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the data mode you are using when transmitting?
To aid in tuning your transmitter
Some modes have high duty cycles which could exceed the transmitter's average power rating.
To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
All of these choices are correct
G8B09: Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
It is required by FCC rules
It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
It improves impedance matching of the antenna
It results in the best signal to noise ratio
G8B10: What does the number 31 represent in PSK31?
The approximate transmitted symbol rate
The version of the PSK protocol
The year in which PSK31 was invented
The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
G8B11: How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
By using the varicode character set
By transmitting redundant information with the data
By using a parity bit with each character
G8B12: What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
Higher symbol rates require higher bandwidth
Lower symbol rates require higher bandwidth
Bandwidth is constant for data mode signals
G9A01: Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
G9A02: What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
25 and 30 ohms
50 and 75 ohms
80 and 100 ohms
500 and 750 ohms
G9A03: What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
50 ohms
75 ohms
100 ohms
300 ohms
G9A04: What is the reason for the occurrence of reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?
Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance
Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
G9A05: How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?
It is independent of frequency
It increases
It decreases
It reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz
G9A06: In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
ohms per 1000 ft
dB per 1000 ft
ohms per 100 ft
dB per 100 ft
G9A07: What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?
The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths long
The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
G9A08: If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
1 to 1
5 to 1
Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
G9A09: What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 200-ohm impedance?
4:1
1:4
2:1
1:2
G9A10: What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 10-ohm impedance?
2:1
50:1
1:5
5:1
G9A11: What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?
2:1
1:1
50:50
0:0
G9A12: What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
2:1
2.5:1
1.25:1
You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
G9A13: What would be the SWR if you feed an antenna that has a 300-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
1.5:1
3:1
6:1
You cannot determine SWR from impedance values
G9B01: What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire antenna?
It must be longer than 1 wavelength
You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
It produces only vertically polarized radiation
It is not effective on the higher HF bands
G9B02: What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna?
They lower the radiation angle
They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
They increase the radiation angle
They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms
G9B03: What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
It decreases
It increases
It stays the same
It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees
G9B04: What is the low angle azimuthal radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole antenna installed 1/2 wavelength high and parallel to the Earth?
It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
G9B05: How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
G9B06: Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
As high as possible above the ground
Parallel to the antenna element
On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
At the top of the antenna
G9B07: How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered from 1/4 wave above ground?
It steadily increases
It steadily decreases
It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
It is unaffected by the height above ground
G9B08: How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed-point location is moved from the center toward the ends?
It steadily increases
It steadily decreases
It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
G9B09: Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to vertically polarized HF antenna?
Lower ground reflection losses
Lower feed-point impedance
Shorter Radials
Lower radiation resistance
G9B10: What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
8 feet
16 feet
24 feet
32 feet
G9B11: What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
42 feet
84 feet
131 feet
263 feet
G9B12: What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
8 feet
11 feet
16 feet
21 feet
G9C01: Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
Larger diameter elements
Closer element spacing
Loading coils in series with the element
Tapered-diameter elements
G9C02: What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
1/4 wavelength
1/2 wavelength
3/4 wavelength
1 wavelength
G9C03: Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
The director is normally the shortest parasitic element
The driven element is the longest parasitic element
Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth
G9C04: Which statement about a three-element; single-band Yagi antenna is true?
The reflector is normally the longest parasitic element
The director is normally the longest parasitic element
The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
All of the elements must be the same length
G9C05: How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?
Gain increases
Beamwidth increases
Weight decreases
Wind load decreases
G9C06: Which of the following is a reason why a Yagi antenna is often used for radio communications on the 20 meter band?
It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane
It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna
It helps reduce interference from other stations to the side or behind the antenna
It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands
G9C07: What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
G9C08: What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
G9C09: What is the approximate maximum theoretical forward gain of a three element, single-band Yagi antenna?
9.7 dBi
9.7 dBd
5.4 times the gain of a dipole
All of these choices are correct
G9C10: Which of the following is a Yagi antenna design variable that could be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth?
The physical length of the boom
The number of elements on the boom
The spacing of each element along the boom
All of these choices are correct
G9C11: What is the purpose of a gamma match used with Yagi antennas?
To match the relatively low feed-point impedance to 50 ohms
To match the relatively high feed-point impedance to 50 ohms
To increase the front to back ratio
To increase the main lobe gain
G9C12: Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match for impedance matching of a Yagi antenna to 50-ohm coax feed line?
It does not require that the elements be insulated from the boom
It does not require any inductors or capacitors
It is useful for matching multiband antennas
All of these choices are correct
G9C13: Approximately how long is each side of a quad antenna driven element?
1/4 wavelength
1/2 wavelength
3/4 wavelength
1 wavelength
G9C14: How does the forward gain of a two-element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three-element Yagi antenna?
About 2/3 as much
About the same
About 1.5 times as much
About twice as much
G9C15: Approximately how long is each side of a quad antenna reflector element?
Slightly less than 1/4 wavelength
Slightly more than 1/4 wavelength
Slightly less than 1/2 wavelength
Slightly more than 1/2 wavelength
G9C16: How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?
3 dB higher
3 dB lower
2.54 dB higher
About the same
G9C17: Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna?
1/4 wavelength
1/3 wavelength
1/2 wavelength
2/3 wavelength
G9C18: What happens when the feed point of a quad antenna is changed from the center of either horizontal wire to the center of either vertical wire?
The polarization of the radiated signal changes from horizontal to vertical
The polarization of the radiated signal changes from vertical to horizontal
The direction of the main lobe is reversed
The radiated signal changes to an omnidirectional pattern
G9C19: What configuration of the loops of a two-element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as a beam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?
The driven element must be fed with a balun transformer
The driven element must be open-circuited on the side opposite the feed point
The reflector element must be approximately 5% shorter than the driven element
The reflector element must be approximately 5% longer than the driven element
G9C20: How does the gain of two 3-element horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single 3-element Yagi?
Approximately 1.5 dB higher
Approximately 3 dB higher
Approximately 6 dB higher
Approximately 9 dB higher
G9D01: What does the term "NVIS" mean as related to antennas?
Nearly Vertical Inductance System
Non-Visible Installation Specification
Non-Varying Impedance Smoothing
Near Vertical Incidence Sky wave
G9D02: Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
High forward gain
All of these choices are correct
G9D03: At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
As close to one-half wave as possible
As close to one wavelength as possible
Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength
G9D04: What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?
To permit multiband operation
To notch spurious frequencies
To provide balanced feed-point impedance
To prevent out of band operation
G9D05: What is the advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
Allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
Allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
Narrows the main lobe in azimuth
Narrows the main lobe in elevation
G9D06: Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?
Wide bandwidth
Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
Harmonic suppression
Polarization diversity
G9D07: Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
Length and spacing of the elements increases logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
G9D08: Why is a Beverage antenna not used for transmitting?
Its impedance is too low for effective matching
It has high losses compared to other types of antennas
It has poor directivity
All of these choices are correct
G9D09: Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?
Directional transmitting for low HF bands
Directional receiving for low HF bands
Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
G9D10: Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?
A vertical antenna constructed from beverage cans
A broad-band mobile antenna
A helical antenna for space reception
A very long and low directional receiving antenna
G9D11: Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
They present low impedance on all design frequencies
They must be used with an antenna tuner
They must be fed with open wire line
They have poor harmonic rejection
